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Marta_Voda [28]
3 years ago
14

30 Points

Mathematics
1 answer:
Zina [86]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

C. a property of algebra

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps

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5. <br> 56°<br> 94°<br> 4.5%<br> 1.5x
dedylja [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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8 0
3 years ago
Find the quotient. (6x 2 - x - 40) ÷ (5 + 2x) 8 - 3x 3x + 8 3x - 8
solmaris [256]
6x^2 - x - 40 =(<span>3x -  8)(2x + 5)
and
</span><span>5 + 2x = 2x + 5
</span><span>
so 
</span>(6x^2 - x - 40)<span>÷ (5 + 2x)
= [</span>(3x -  8)(2x + 5)] ÷ (5 + 2x) 
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answer
3x - 8
7 0
3 years ago
Ben is making 12 fruit drinks. each drink uses 2/3 of a bottle f orange juice and 1/4 of a bottle of pineapple juice. What is th
valkas [14]
1 drink 2/3 oj
12 drinks x
X= 2/3 • 12
X=24/3
X= 8 orange juice bottles

1 drink 1/4 pj
12 drinks X
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X=12/4
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5 0
3 years ago
I need help with this
GuDViN [60]
I hope this helps you

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that x has a binomial distribution with n = 201 and p = 0.45. (Round np and n(1-p) answers to 2 decimal places. Round yo
ycow [4]

Answer:

a) It can be used because np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5.

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial distribution and approximation to the normal:

The binomial distribution has two parameters:

n, which is the number of trials.

p, which is the probability of a success on a single trial.

If np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5, the normal approximation to the binomial can appropriately be used.

In this question:

n = 201, p = 0.45

So, lets verify the conditions:

np = 201*0.45 = 90.45 > 5

n(1-p) = 201*(1-0.45) = 201*0.55 = 110.55 > 5

Since both np and n(1-p) are greater than 5, the approximation can be used.

3 0
3 years ago
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