3 years ago

Are the expressions 3{y+1} and 3y+3 equivalent for any value? explain

Mathematics

2 answers:

andre [41]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

The distributive property states that a(b+c) = ab+ac. Working out the first equation, we see that 3(y+1) is 3y+3. Because the second equation is 3y+3, they are also equal.

solmaris [256]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

It is because you need to times in the answer

3(y+1) mutiply it in!

3times y and 3 times 1

it equals to 3y+3

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