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eduard
4 years ago
13

Are the expressions 3{y+1} and 3y+3 equivalent for any value? explain

Mathematics
2 answers:
andre [41]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

The distributive property states that a(b+c) = ab+ac. Working out the first equation, we see that 3(y+1) is 3y+3. Because the second equation is 3y+3, they are also equal.

solmaris [256]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

yes

Step-by-step explanation:

It is because you need to times in the answer

3(y+1) mutiply it in!

3times y and 3 times 1

it equals to 3y+3

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3 years ago
Based on past experience, 1 % of the telephone bills mailed to house-holds in Hong Kong are incorrect. If a sample of 10 bills i
nikdorinn [45]
<h2>Answer with explanation:</h2>

Given : The probability that telephone bills mailed to house-holds in Hong Kong are incorrect.=0.01

<h2>Binomial distribution :-</h2>

P(x)=^nC_xp^x(1-p)^{n-x}

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<h2>Poisson distribution: </h2>

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