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Gemiola [76]
3 years ago
11

A company's current sales are $300,000 and fixed expenses total $225,000. The contribution margin ratio is 30%. The company has

decided to expand production which is expected to increase sales by $70,000 and fixed expenses by $15,000. If these results occur, net operating income will:___________
Business
1 answer:
jeka57 [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$6,000

Explanation:

The net operating income will increase by $6,000;

$70,000*30%-$15,000=$6,000

As the CM ratio is 30% and $15,000 are fixed expenses,net result will be increase in net operating income.

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When the price elasticity of demand for a good is very elastic, quantity demanded is _____ to a change in price and the demand c
meriva

Answer:

1. Responsive

2. Elastic

Explanation:

When the price elasticity of demand for a good is very elastic, quantity demanded is RESPONSIVE to a change in price and the demand curve is relatively ELASTIC.

This is because the price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded to a change in price.

Consequently, as the quantity demanded changes, the demand curve then becomes relatively elastic, by shifting either to the right or left.

3 0
3 years ago
Jenny owns a book company. It costs $10.00 to produce a new book and the company wants a 30% profit, so he charges $13.00 for th
diamong [38]

Answer:

B. Cost-plus pricing.

Explanation:

This is explained to be a cost based pattern or unique strategy which is seen to ensure that costs are been covered in the sense that all pricing variables are seen to add some particular percentage to mark its price. It is seen in most cases is obviously seen to cover all cost of what exactly it is a customer is seen to have loved or valued in the said product.

Certain scenarios has shown that optimization is rare in the discussed topic' way to calculate a price, it shouldn't be your only way of finding price.

7 0
2 years ago
If the opportunity cost of manufacturing machinery is lower in the United States than in Britain and the opportunity cost of man
kogti [31]

Answer:

.a. import sweaters from Britain and export machinery to Britain.

Explanation:

A lower opportunity cost of manufacturing a particular goods means that a country uses fewer inputs in production compared to other nations.  The country can produce more quantities of the product using similar factors of production. A lower opportunity cost in manufacturing will make a country's output cheaper compared to when that product is manufactured in other nations.

Varying production costs form the basis of international trade. A County imports commodities that are produced cheaply elsewhere and exports the goods it can manufacture at a lower cost. The united states can produce machinery at a lower cost than Britain.  Britain will be prudent to import machinery from the united states rather than produce.  Britain produces sweaters using fewer inputs that the US. The US will find importing  sweaters from Britain more economical compared to manufacturing.  

3 0
3 years ago
Detailing's cost formula for its materials and supplies is $2,060 per month plus $12 per vehicle. For the month of August, the c
OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

Planning budget amount = $3,052.00

Explanation:

<em>The planning budget is als0 known as the </em><em>fixed budge</em><em>t . It is the budget prepared for the original level of activity intended or  planned for. As it's name implies, it is used for  planning purpose.</em>

For the month of August, the planning budget

= $2060 + ($12 × 86)

=  $3,052.00

Planning budget amount = $3,052.00

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
g You will be receiving cash flows of: $2,000 today, $3,000 at end of year 1, $5,000 at end of year 3, and $7,000 at end of year
enot [183]

Answer:

The present value of the cashflows will be $12830.30

Explanation:

The present value of the cashflows can be calculated by dividing the cash flows by the appropriate discount rate and for the appropriate time period.

The present value of the given cash flows will be,

Present Value = CF1 / (1+r) + CF2 / (1+r)^2 + .... + CFn / (1+r)^n

As the first payment is received today, it will already be in the present value so it will not be discounted.

Present value = 2000 + 3000 /  (1+0.1) + 5000 / (1+0.1)^3 + 7000 / (1+0.1)^5

Present value = $12830.295 rounded off to $12830.30

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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