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lozanna [386]
3 years ago
9

George's Equipment is planning on merging with Nelson Machinery. George's will pay Nelson's shareholders the current value of th

eir stock in shares of George's Equipment. George's currently has 4,600 shares of stock outstanding at a market price of $31 a share. Nelson's has 1,600 shares outstanding at a price of $38 a share. What is the value per share of the merged firm assuming there is no synergy
Business
1 answer:
zalisa [80]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

31 per share

Explanation:

The computation of value per share is shown below:-

Share exchange ratio = MPS of Nelson ÷ MPS of George

= $38 ÷ $31

= 1.2258

MPS a + b = MVa + MVb ÷ Number of shares a + Number of shares b × SER

= (1600 × $38) + (4,600 × $31) ÷ 4,600 + (1,600 × 1.2258)

= $60,800 + $142,600 ÷ 4600 + 1,961

= $203,400 ÷ 6,561

= 31 per share

Therefore for computing the value per share we simply applied the above formula.

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Terrence Industries charges manufacturing overhead to products by using a predetermined application rate, computed on the basis
puteri [66]

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

First, we need to get the predetermined rate

Predetermined rate = Cost of manufacturing overhead / Cost driver

= $1,800,000/60,000

= $30

We will now calculate the application.

Actual labor hours × rate

= 61,500 × $30

= $1,845,000

We will now compare actual with overhead cost

= Applied Overhead cost - Actual manufacturing overhead

= $1,845,000 - $1,810,000

= $35,000

The above is an over application of overhead cost because the cost applied exceed the actual cost.

5 0
3 years ago
Carson County State Bank has a ratio of equity capital to total assets of 2.5%. The FDIC which regulates this bank has determine
Elenna [48]

Answer:

compliance risk

Explanation:

Compliance risk -

It refers to the risky situation , which can be due to some financial forfeiture , legal penalties , loss of material , when the company fails to follow the rules and  regulations , is referred to as compliance risk .

Hence , from the given scenario of the question,

The correct type of risk involved is compliance risk .

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose that initially a bank has excess reserves of $800 and the reserve ratio is 30%. Then Andy deposits $1,000 of cash into h
ratelena [41]

Answer:

excess reserves after lending  = $900

so correct option is C) $900

Explanation:

given data

reserves = $800

reserve ratio = 30%

deposits = $1,000

bank lends = $600

to find out

That bank can lend an additional

solution

first we get required reserves from new deposit that is express as

required reserves  = deposit × reserve ratio      ......................1

put here value

required reserves  = $1000 × 30%

required reserves  = $300

and

now excess reserves from new deposits will be  

excess reserves = deposits - required reserves     .......................2

put here value

excess reserves = $1000 - $300

excess reserves  = $700

and

total excess reserves  will be here

total excess reserves = old excess reserves + new excess reserves     ...........3

put here value

total excess reserves =  $800 + $700

total excess reserves = $1500

so that

excess reserves after lending is here express as

excess reserves after lending  = excess reserves - amount given to Molly   ..........................4

put here value

excess reserves after lending  = $1500 - $600

excess reserves after lending  = $900

so correct option is C) $900

3 0
4 years ago
Natalia has just finished her law degree, but as she starts her job search, she realizes that there many lawyers practicing in h
Len [333]
That means that she is going to have to work harder to be the best lawyer in the area, or move to an area with fewer lawyers
5 0
4 years ago
A woman buys a house for a ​$320000. She pays ​$40000 down and takes out a mortgage at 5.7​% for 20 years on the balance. Find h
sdas [7]

Answer:

PMT= 1957.850

Explanation:

For this case the total payment is $320000, and she pays $40000 so the remain amount to pay would be:

$320000-40000=$ 280000

For this case we assume that the annual interest rate is APR=5.7% =0.057 on fraction.

The total number of years are 20. For this case n represent the number of payments per year and since we have monthly payments then n =12.

In order to find the PMT we can use the following formula:

PMT= \frac{P(\frac{APR}{n})}{[1-(1+\frac{APR}{n})^{-nt}]}

On the last expression the APR needs to be on fraction and P represent the principal amount, for this case P = $280000. So if we replace we got:

PMT= \frac{280000(\frac{0.057}{12})}{[1-(1+\frac{0.057}{12})^{-12*20}]}

PMT= 1957.850

And we can verify this using the following excel function: "=PMT(0.057/12,12*20,-280000)"

3 0
4 years ago
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