Answer:
a-1. How long do you have to pay before the account is overdue?
a-2. If you take the full period, how much should you remit?
- if you pay after the discount period (first 30 days) but before the 50th day, you must pay $84,800
b-1. What is the discount being offered?
- 2% if you pay within 30 days
b-2. How quickly must you pay to get the discount?
- you have up to 30 days to pay the invoice and still get the discount
b-3. If you do take the discount, how much should you remit?
c-1. If you don’t take the discount, how much interest are you paying implicitly?
c-2. How many days’ credit are you receiving?
- the total credit period is 50 days
Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation of depreciation for each of the first two years by the straight-line method is shown below:-
Depreciation
= (Assets cost - Salvage value) ÷ Useful life
= ($171,000 - 0) ÷ 25
= $6,840
For First year = $6,840
For Second year = $6,840
It would be the same for the remaining useful life
b. The computation of depreciation for each of the first two years by the double-declining-balance method is shown below:-
First we have to determine the depreciation rate which is shown below:
= One ÷ useful life
= 1 ÷ 25
= 4%
Now the rate is double So, 8%
In year 1, the original cost is $171,000, so the depreciation is $13,680 after applying the 8% depreciation rate
And, in year 2, the ($171,000 - $13,680) × 8% = $12,585.60
Answer:
The correct answer is the option C: an agreement among firms to charge the same price or otherwise not to compete.
Explanation:
To begin with, the name of <em>"collusion" </em>refers to an economy concept that focus on the situation where two or more companies decide to work together ilegally by taking a same strategy such as pricing the goods with a same amount so in that order the limit or at least intent to restrict the competion so in that way those firms can keep a piece of the market for themselves. It is consider ilegally in the countries because it is an disadvantage for the competition.
Pn = P0(1+r)∧n
Pnis future value of P0
P0 is original amount invested
r is the rate of interest
n is the number of compounding periods (years, months, etc.)
P(n) = 2250(1+(.03/4)∧8
** since the interest is compounding quarterly, you need to divide the rate by 4, the number of quarters in a year.
Then you would do the math.
Answer: b) $841,666.
Explanation:
Markwell will record the equipment at the present value of the amounts spent to purchase it.
Present value of the cash paid = $175,000
Present value of the noninterest-bearing note after a year = 700,000/(1 + 5%)
= $666,667
Total = 175,000 + 666,667
= $841,667
As per the options;
= $841,666
