Answer and Explanation:
The following theories of profit best explain the profits of pharma companies:
1. Risk bearing - The theory says the higher the risk, the higher the rewards. The pharma companies take huge risks in inventing a new drug, having trials and the getting FDA approvals.
2. Monopoly - If a new drug is approved, the pharma company gets a patent over it, which means that it will have an effective monopoly on that segment of the market.
3. Innovation - it states that innovation is what keeps a company ahead. And pharma industry is built on innovation. Pharma companies have to continuously find new drugs because once patents run out on existing drugs, there are no profits to be made.
Answer:
Solution: the answer in delivered in 2 stages because of the character of dualistic problems:-
Part (1)
As Kent and Craig are concerned during a professional with prospective risk and that they wish to hide their prospective accountability. the character of the industry which can be utmost applicable in corporate against the other variety of industry like individual merchant or partnership company because of the subsequent details:-
Reason I: Unrestricted accountability- just in case of insolvency or industry letdown, Kent and Craig don't seem to be obligated to trade their particular resources.
Reason II: convenience of Business- because of the Supply of additional investment compared to restricted investment in sole profession and partnership company, they're ready to manage with the qualms related to the industry.
Part (2)
Wanting to the purposes of Dave and Cindy, the indebtedness corporation is desirable because of the subsequent details:-
Reason I: No danger to non-public assets because the corporation is proscribed accountability.
Reason II: just one level of tax within the variety of company tax
.
<span>b. companies always carefully test any claims that they make about a product </span>
Answer:
the money multiplier = 1 / reserve ratio
in this case, the reserve ratio is 10% (required) + 10% (voluntary) = 20%, so the money multiplier = 1/20% = 5
What is the immediate impact of this transaction on the money supply?
- None, since the money supply doesn't change. When a customer deposits money in a bank, the money does not increase, only its composition changes.
The maximum amount by which this bank will increase its loans from the transaction in part (a)
- the bank will be able to loan ⇒ total deposit x (1 - reserve ratio) = $9,000 x (1 - 20%) = $7,200
The maximum increase in the money supply that will be generated from the transaction in part
- since the banks started to "create" money by lending the money, the money supply will increase by ⇒ total deposit x (money multiplier - 1) = $9,000 x 4 = $36,000
Assume that the government increases spending by $9,000, which is financed by a sale of bonds to the central bank. Indicate what will happen to the money supply.
- The money supply will increase.
Explain what will happen to the money demand.
- The money demand will also increase because aggregate demand and income will increase. Aggregate demand will increase by ⇒ $9,000 x government multiplier. The government multiplier = 1 / MPS.
Answer:
$5,860
Explanation:
Computation for their tax savings from the preferential rate
First step is to calculate their tax liability
Using this formula
Tax liability =[Tax amount on $169,300 ordinary income-(Tax Amount on $120,300 ordinary income +Tax amount on $49,000 preferential income)]
Let plug in the formula
Tax Savings=[$35,648-($22,438+$7,350)]
Tax Savings=$35,648-$29,788
Tax Savings=$5,860
Therefore their tax savings from the preferential rate is $5,860
