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Oksi-84 [34.3K]
3 years ago
12

Sylvia Taylor talks about the company’s Total Rewards program, the goal of which is to compensate employees at a competitive lev

el. Which of the following tools can managers use to collect quantifiable data that makes it easy to compare the duties and responsibilities of one job relative to another?
Business
2 answers:
soldier1979 [14.2K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

C. Position analysis questionnaire.

Explanation:

A job evaluation is a management compensation method that is, a systematic way of determining the value/worth of a job in relation to other jobs in an organization. Job analysis is a family of procedures to identify the content of a job in terms of activities involved and attributes or job requirements needed to perform the activities.

Methods of job analysis include:

Position analysis questionnaire (PAQ): It is defined as a job analysis questionnaire that evaluates job skill level and basic characteristics of applicants for a set match of employment opportunity.

The primary reason to use a position analysis questionnaire is to gather quantitative data that enables managers to compare jobs for pay or compensation purposes.

olya-2409 [2.1K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Position analysis questionnaire.

Explanation:

The position analysis questionnaire (PAQ) is a structured job analysis questionnaire that aids the user in conducting a quantified analysis of a given job. To complete a job analysis using the PAQ, the user reviews background information, observes the job, and conducts thorough interviews with job incumbents to determine job content then rates the extent to which each item on a standard list of PAQ job elements applies to that particular job. There are six types of rating scales used in the PAQ:

• Extent of Use;

• Importance to This Job;

• Amount of Time;

• Possibility of Occurrence;

• Applicability; and

• Item-Specific scales.

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Time Remaining 1 hour 8 minutes 42 seconds01:08:42 Item 5 Time Remaining 1 hour 8 minutes 42 seconds01:08:42 Crich Corporation u
emmasim [6.3K]

Answer:

under-applied overheads is $1,340

Explanation:

Note : I have attached the full question/similar as an image below.

Actual Overheads   = $594,960

Applied Overheads = $594,960 / 22,200 x 22,150 = $593,620

Since,

Actual Overheads  > Applied Overheads, overheads have been under-applied.

Amount of under-applied overheads is $1,340 ($594,960 - $593,620).

5 0
3 years ago
Zachary, a manager at ExecuComp, receives quarterly reports, which track his department's production statistics. However, these
makkiz [27]

Answer: measuring actual performance

Explanation: Measuring is the first step in the control cycle. Many employment and tasks can be expressed in concrete and observable terms.

Managers often use a number of information sources to assess actual performance, such as personal observations, statistical reports, oral reports, and written reports.

In the given case, Zachary is using a report that lacks relevance relative to the measurement criteria. Hence from the above we can conclude that the correct option is A.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Protein folding is often described as a highly cooperative process. this means that
Orlov [11]

Protein folding is often described as a highly cooperative process. This means that proteins tend to be folded or unfolded without the presence of partially folded states.
<span>Proteins help build hormones, enzymes and other body muscles. It is also the basic for blood, skin and bones etc. in human body.</span>

3 0
3 years ago
The tax rate of $.0815 in decimal can be expressed as _____ mills.
amid [387]
<span>The tax rate of $.0815 in decimal can be expressed as 81.5 mills.
</span>one mill is one thousandth of a currency unit, or 0.001$. So 0.0815 in mills means we have to divide 0.0815 by 0.001 
0.0815/0.001 = 81.5
6 0
3 years ago
Targaryen Corporation has a target capital structure of 65 percent common stock, 5 percent preferred stock, and 30 percent debt.
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

  • a. What is the company’s WACC?

R_Wacc =  13% (65%) + 5% (5%) + 6% (30%) * (1-0,25) =  10,05%

  • b. What is the aftertax cost of debt?

The aftertax cost of debt is:    

R_Debt :  (1 - 0,25) x 6% = 4,50%

Explanation:

The WACC it's defined by the formula :

WACC: E/V*Re + D/V*Rd *(1-0,25)

Re:   13,00%  Cost of Common Equity    

Re:   5,00%  Cost of Preferred STOCK  

Re:   6%     Cost of Debt  

E/V:   65%   Percentage of financing that is Common Equity  

PS/V:   5%     Percentage of financing that is Preferred Stock  

DB/V:   30%    Percentage of financing that is Debt  

Tax:  25%    Corporate tax rate  

Now we have all of the components to calculate the WACC.

The WACC is:      

R_Wacc =  13% (65%) + 5% (5%) + 6% (30%)*(1-0,25) =  10,05%  

The aftertax cost of debt is:    

R_Debt :  (1 - 0,25) x 6% = 4,50%

5 0
3 years ago
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