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alina1380 [7]
3 years ago
14

CAN SOMEONE HELP ME ?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Nataly_w [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

sure ill help

Step-by-step explanation:

otez555 [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a+b=f

Step-by-step explanation:

180-f= c

180-(a+b)= c

SO

a+b= f

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Suppose n people, n ≥ 3, play "odd person out" to decide who will buy the next round of refreshments. The n people each flip a f
blondinia [14]

Answer:

Assume that all the coins involved here are fair coins.

a) Probability of finding the "odd" person in one round: \displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}.

b) Probability of finding the "odd" person in the kth round: \displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} \cdot \left( 1 - n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}\right)^{k - 1}.

c) Expected number of rounds: \displaystyle \frac{2^{n - 1}}{n}.

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>a)</h3>

To decide the "odd" person, either of the following must happen:

  • There are (n - 1) heads and 1 tail, or
  • There are 1 head and (n - 1) tails.

Assume that the coins here all are all fair. In other words, each has a 50\,\% chance of landing on the head and a

The binomial distribution can model the outcome of n coin-tosses. The chance of getting x heads out of

  • The chance of getting (n - 1) heads (and consequently, 1 tail) would be \displaystyle {n \choose n - 1}\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - (n - 1)} = n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n.
  • The chance of getting 1 heads (and consequently, (n - 1) tails) would be \displaystyle {n \choose 1}\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{1} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} = n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n.

These two events are mutually-exclusive. \displaystyle n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n + n\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n  = 2\,n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n = n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} would be the chance that either of them will occur. That's the same as the chance of determining the "odd" person in one round.

<h3>b)</h3>

Since the coins here are all fair, the chance of determining the "odd" person would be \displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1} in all rounds.

When the chance p of getting a success in each round is the same, the geometric distribution would give the probability of getting the first success (that is, to find the "odd" person) in the kth round: (1 - p)^{k - 1} \cdot p. That's the same as the probability of getting one success after (k - 1) unsuccessful attempts.

In this case, \displaystyle p = n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}. Therefore, the probability of succeeding on round k round would be

\displaystyle \underbrace{\left(1 - n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}\right)^{k - 1}}_{(1 - p)^{k - 1}} \cdot \underbrace{n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}}_{p}.

<h3>c)</h3>

Let p is the chance of success on each round in a geometric distribution. The expected value of that distribution would be \displaystyle \frac{1}{p}.

In this case, since \displaystyle p = n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}, the expected value would be \displaystyle \frac{1}{p} = \frac{1}{\displaystyle n \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n - 1}}= \frac{2^{n - 1}}{n}.

7 0
3 years ago
A coach is buying snacks for 22 players on a soccer match chip is a total of $77 to buy each player a bottle of water and energy
KIM [24]

The question is incomplete:

A coach is buying snacks for 22 players at a soccer match. She pays a total of $77 to buy each player a bottle of water and an energy bar. The price of one energy bar is $2. Let w equal the price of a bottle of water. Write an equation that represents the situation.

Answer:

x=44+22w, where

x is the total amount paid

w is the price of a bottle of water

Step-by-step explanation:

With the information provided, you can say that the total amount paid is equal to the result of multiplying the price per energy bar for the number of energy bars purchased plus the result of multiplying the price per bottle of water for the number of bottles of water:

price per energy bar= $2

number of enrgy bars= 22

price per bottle of water= w

number of bottles of water= 22

x=(2*22)+(w*22)

x=44+22w, where

x is the total amount paid

w is the price of a bottle of water

7 0
3 years ago
A stock person at Walmart has decided that they would like to completely
maw [93]

Answer:

I think the answer is impossible for ever

7 0
3 years ago
Help me find the angles B and C thanks
bezimeni [28]

Answer:

the value of x is 88

Step-by-step explanation:

plz see and check

5 0
3 years ago
PLEASEEWW HELPPP WILL MARK BRAINLIESTTT
Furkat [3]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

because you need to reflect to match the shape

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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