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dalvyx [7]
3 years ago
9

How do I solve this?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Korolek [52]3 years ago
6 0
<span><span>   (<span>x−8</span>)</span>2</span><span>=<span><span>(<span>x+<span>−8</span></span>)</span><span>(<span>x+<span>−8</span></span>)</span></span></span><span>=<span><span><span><span><span>(x)</span><span>(x)</span></span>+<span><span>(x)</span><span>(<span>−8</span>)</span></span></span>+<span><span>(<span>−8</span>)</span><span>(x)</span></span></span>+<span><span>(<span>−8</span>)</span><span>(<span>−8</span>)</span></span></span></span><span>=<span><span><span><span>x2</span>−<span>8x</span></span>−<span>8x</span></span>+64</span></span><span>=<span><span><span>x2</span>−<span>16x</span></span>+<span>64

</span></span></span><span>(x−8)2=x2−82Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.x2−16x+64=x2−64Step 2: Subtract x^2 from both sides.x2−16x+64−x2=x2−64−x2−16x+64=−64Step 3: Subtract 64 from both sides.−16x+64−64=−64−64−16x=−128Step 4: Divide both sides by -16.−16x−16=−128−16x=8</span>
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Given:

After \frac{3}{4} of an hour of rain the rain gauge is \frac{2}{5} filed.

To find the fraction of the rain that will be filled in the gauge if it continues to rain at the same rate for 15 more minutes.

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15 minutes in hours will be = 15\ min \times \frac{1\ hour}{60\ min} = \frac{1}{4} of an hour.

Given that it has rained for \frac{3}{4} of an hour, and it continues to rain for  \frac{1}{4} of an hour more.

Thus, total time of rain will be = \frac{3}{4}+\frac{1}{4}=\frac{4}{4}=1\ hour

Using unitary method to find the fraction of rain filled in the gauge after 1 hour of rain.

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To divide fractions, we take reciprocal of the divisor and replace division by multiplication.

⇒ \frac{2}{5}\times\frac{4}{3}

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Thus, the fraction of the rain filled in the gauge will be =  \frac{8}{15}

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It must be given as \frac{2}{5} divided by \frac{3}{4} .

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