All categories

2 years ago

[email protected]@

[email protected]@@@mmmmm

Mathematics

2 answers:

Lorico [155]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You must notice that y = x is parallel with them.

Alexus [3.1K]2 years ago

4 0

1 is the answer! Bye now

You might be interested in

Slope intercept form? A line passes through the point (10,4) and has a slope of -1 over 2 .

Law Incorporation [45]

The slope-intercept form:

$y=mx+b$

m - slope

b - y-intercept

We have the slope $m=-\dfrac{1}{2}$ and the point (10, 4).

Substitute the value of slope and the coordinates to the equation of line:

$y=-\dfrac{1}{2}x+b\\\\4=-\dfrac{1}{2}(10)+b\\\\4=-5+b\qquad|\text{add 5 to both sides}\\\\9=b\to b=9$

Answer: $y=-\dfrac{1}{2}x+9$

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Hey can you please help me posted picture of question

ICE Princess25 [194]

The answer is true.

Method 1:
The given function is a cubic function. And inverse of a cubic function is also a function.

Method 2:
Since the function is one-to-one function i.e it passes the horizontal line test, its function will pass the vertical line test which is a test if a relation is a function or not.

So, yes the inverse of G(x) will be a function.

6 0

3 years ago

There are 8 blue candies, 5 pink candies, 1 white candy, and 6 green candies in a candy jar. You reach in, without looking, and

kupik [55]

Answer:

30%

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the total number of candies in the jar.

8 + 5 + 1 + 6 = 20

The probability of choosing a green candy is 6/20 = 3/10 = .3 = 30%

5 0

3 years ago

Would appreciate the help !

aleksandr82 [10.1K]

This is one pathway to prove the identity.

Part 1

$\frac{\sin(\theta)}{1-\cos(\theta)}-\frac{1}{\tan(\theta)} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin(\theta)}{1-\cos(\theta)}-\cot(\theta) = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin(\theta)}{1-\cos(\theta)}-\frac{\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin(\theta)*\sin(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))}-\frac{\cos(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\$

Part 2

$\frac{\sin^2(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))}-\frac{\cos(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin^2(\theta)-(\cos(\theta)-\cos^2(\theta))}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{\sin^2(\theta)-\cos(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\$

Part 3

$\frac{\sin^2(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta)-\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{1-\cos(\theta)}{\sin(\theta)(1-\cos(\theta))} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)}\\\\\frac{1}{\sin(\theta)} = \frac{1}{\sin(\theta)} \ \ {\checkmark}\\\\$

As the steps above show, the goal is to get both sides be the same identical expression. You should only work with one side to transform it into the other. In this case, the left side transforms while the right side stays fixed the entire time. The general rule is that you should convert the more complicated expression into a simpler form.

We use other previously established or proven trig identities to work through the steps. For example, I used the pythagorean identity $\sin^2(\theta)+\cos^2(\theta) = 1$ in the second to last step. I broke the steps into three parts to hopefully make it more manageable.

3 0

2 years ago

Estimate the product of 25.311 × 4.65.

gogolik [260]

Answer:

125

Step-by-step explanation:

25 • 5

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers