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photoshop1234 [79]
3 years ago
5

What is the optimal mode of entry in the situation where a firm wants to reduce its risk through a sharing of costs?

Business
2 answers:
Blizzard [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The correct answer is option B

B. Exporting

Explanation:

When looking at "Deciding on the international entry mode" section (8-3). The classification from low to high risk is; indirect exporting, direct exporting, licensing, franchising, joint ventures, branch offices, wholly owned subsidiaries.

kow [346]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a. Strategic alliance 

Explanation:

A strategic alliance is when two or more companies come together to achieve a certain objective. The companies that come together still remain independent.

Some of the reasons for a strategic alliances include-

1. Penetrating a new market.

2. Increasing market share

3. Increasing economies of scale.

Strategic alliances reduces cost because the number of companies that would bear the cost of a project has increased.

A subsidiary is a company that is wholly owned by another company known as the parent company. A subsidiary doesn't lead to cost reduction.

In acquisition, a company gains control by purchasing more than 50% of a company's shares. It doesn't lead to cost reduction.

Export is selling goods and services abroad.

Licensing is giving another company the permission to make use of its property in its production process.

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3 years ago
During the month of April, direct labor cost totaled $9,750 and direct labor cost was 30% of prime cost. If total manufacturing
MatroZZZ [7]

Answer:

manufacturing overhead= $42,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Direct labor= $9,750 (30% of prime costs)

Total manufacturing costs= $74,500

<u>First, we need to determine the direct material costs. We know that prime costs are the sum of direct labor and direct material.</u>

Prime costs= direct labor / 0.3

Prime costs= 9,750 /0.3

Prime costs= $32,500

Direct material= 32,500 - 9,750

Direct material= $22,750

<u>Now, we can calculate the manufacturing overhead:</u>

Total manufacturing costs= direct labor + direct material + manufacturing overhead

74,500 = 9,750 + 22,750 + manufacturing overhead

manufacturing overhead= $42,000

8 0
3 years ago
If you are a manager seeking to join a firm that groups managers according to their expertise and resources they use in their jo
4vir4ik [10]

Answer:

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Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Cody Jenkins and Lacey Tanner formed a partnership to provide landscaping services. Jenkins and Tanner shared profits and losses
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

A) 10,200

Explanation:

Capital balance of both partners :

Cody Jenkins = $39,000

Lacey Tanner = $51,000

Existing capital =. $(39,000 + 51,000) = $90,000

New purchase price - Solano = $24,000

Total capital = $(90,000 + 24000) = $114,000

New capital :

New partner share × total capital

New partner capital = 30 % × 114000 = $34,200

Amount of partner bonus = new purchase price - new partner capital

Amount of partner bonus = 24,000 - 34,200 = - $10,200

Bonus share ratio:

Cody Jenkins and Lacey Tanner share profit and losses equally :

Cody Jenkins and Lacey Tanner :

0.5 × 10,200 = -$5,100

B)

Account. - - - - - - - - - - - - - Debit - - - - - Credit

Cash - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 24,000

Capital: valerio Solano - - - - - - - - - - - 34,200

Capital: Cody Jenkins - - - 5,100

Capital: Lacey Tanner - - - 5,100

Total - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 34,200 - - - 34,200

C.)

The purchase price is less than the book value of the 30% percentage of the partnership purchase, valerio Solano purchase price was $24,000 but he was allocated 30% of total capital which is $34,200

4 0
3 years ago
Arlington Company is constructing a building. Construction began on January 1 and was completed on December 31. Expenditures wer
yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

b. 10.65%

capitalized interest

d. $704,415

actual interest

a. $1,758,000

interest expense

c. $1,053,585

Explanation:

the average cost of debt for general funds:

4,800,000 x 10% = 480,000

9,000,000 x 11% = 990,000

13,800,000            1,470,000

1,470,000 / 13,800,000 = 10.65%

<u>capitalized fund:</u>

4,800,000 x 10/12= 4,000,000‬

3,960,000 x 7/12 = 2,310,000

total                         6,310,000

specifit borrowing: 2,400,000 x 12% = 288,000

remainder              3910000 x 10.65% = 416,415

                                     capitalized cost 704,415

<u>actual interest:</u>

1,470,000 + 288,000 = 1,758,000

<u>interest expense</u>

1,758,000 - 704,415 = 1,053,585

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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