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4 years ago

What formula can represent ax-bx+y=0

1 answer:

iogann1982 [59]4 years ago

5 0

The way you have written it now it is just a straight line. It is a bit weird that you have a and b, since you can rewrite as (a-b)x+y = 0, which shows that a-b is the constant that determines the slope of the line.

I suspect that you may have intended ax^2-bx+y=0. That is a parabola. But maybe not, and then it's just a straight line.

Your line will always pass through the origin (0,0). Regardless of a and b, you can easily (I hope) see that it will.

What is the question really asking?

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Three components are randomly sampled, one at a time, from a large lot. As each component is selected, it is tested. If it passe

Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

a) $P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.8)^0 (1-0.8)^{3-0}=0.008$

$P(X=1)=(3C1)(0.8)^1 (1-0.8)^{3-1}=0.096$

$E(X) = np = 3*0.8= 2.4$

We expect 2.4 successes in a sample of three selected.

And the standard deviation is given by:

$Sd(X)= \sigma = \sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{3*0.8*(1-0.8)}= 0.693$

Represent the typical variation around the mean.

b) $Y \sim Binom(n=4, p=0.8)$

And we want this probability:

$P(Y=3)=(4C3)(0.8)^3 (1-0.8)^{4-3}=0.4096$

c) $Z \sim Binom(n=4, p=0.8)$

And we want this probability:

$P(Z=3)=(4C3)(0.8)^3 (1-0.8)^{4-3}=0.4096$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Part a

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.8)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want the following probabilities

$P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.8)^0 (1-0.8)^{3-0}=0.008$

$P(X=1)=(3C1)(0.8)^1 (1-0.8)^{3-1}=0.096$

The mean is given by:

$E(X) = np = 3*0.8= 2.4$

We expect 2.4 successes in a sample of three selected.

And the standard deviation is given by:

$Sd(X)= \sigma = \sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{3*0.8*(1-0.8)}= 0.693$

Represent the typical variation around the mean.

Part b

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$Y \sim Binom(n=4, p=0.8)$

And we want this probability:

$P(Y=3)=(4C3)(0.8)^3 (1-0.8)^{4-3}=0.4096$

Part c

Let Z the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$Z \sim Binom(n=4, p=0.8)$

And we want this probability:

$P(Z=3)=(4C3)(0.8)^3 (1-0.8)^{4-3}=0.4096$

6 0

3 years ago

Help please i need this

Arada [10]

Answer:

It is Answer B

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helped

7 0

3 years ago

Tablets are on sale for 15% off the original price (t), which can be expressed with the function p(t) = 0.85t. Local taxes are a

Natali [406]

The final cost of the tablet is c(t) = 1.08p = 1.08(0.85t) = 0.918t

Required function is c(t) = 0.918t

6 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Divide 3,479 by 9. What is the remainder?

maxonik [38]

5/9 is the remainder

4 0

3 years ago

Find thw exact intrest for $600 at 8% for 45 days. round to nearest cent

natita [175]

Since it's 8% every year, we have 8% of 600 equals 8*6=48. 48/365 is the amount of interest per day, and 48*45/365 is what you would get over 45 days, which is approximately 5.9 dollars

Note that this is assuming interest is compounded every year

4 0

3 years ago