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Sav [38]
2 years ago
9

Conversion cost is the sum of a.selling cost and administrative costs. b.product costs and period costs. c.direct labor cost and

overhead costs. d.direct labor cost and direct materials costs.
Business
1 answer:
defon2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The answer is  c.direct labor cost and overhead costs.

Explanation:

Conversion costs include direct labor and overhead expenses incurred in the process of converting raw materials into finished products

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Which of the following expands upon the behavioral intentions model by including a perceived control component that assesses the
Monica [59]

Answer:

The correct answer is a. Theory of planned action.

Explanation:

The theory of planned behavior was developed in 1985, based on the Theory of Reasoned Action. This theory contains five variables that include behavior, intention, attitude, subjective norm and control of perceived behavior.

Unlike the theory of reasoned action, the control of perceived behavior is added to the theory of planned behavior, which refers to a person's perceptions of the presence or absence of resources and opportunities required, however, this element it is not presented in the theory of reasoned action, and the theory of planned behavior has proven to be superior to the theory of reasoned action for predicting behavior.

6 0
3 years ago
A wire having a mass per unit length of 0.440 g/cm carries a 1.50-A current horizontally to the south. (a) What is the direction
coldgirl [10]

Answer:

B = 0.287  Tesla

According to thumb rule the direction of magnet is to the east.

Explanation:

F = BiL sin∅

note that F = mg

B = magnetic field

i = current

therefore,

mg = BiLsin∅

Make B subject of the formula

B = mg/iLsin∅

m/L = mass per length of the wire and it is given in gram per centimeter . It should be converted to kg per meter.

m/L = 0.440 g/cm

convert to kg/m = 0.440 × 0.001 kg × 100 m = 0.044  kg/m

B = 9.8 × 0.044 / sin 90 × 1.50 × 1

B = 0.4312/ 1.50

B = 0.28746666666

B = 0.287  Tesla

According to thumb rule the direction of magnet is to the east.

4 0
3 years ago
Havermill Co. establishes a $250 petty cash fund on September 1. On September 30, the fund is replenished. The accumulated recei
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

e. Debit Petty Cash $50       Credit Cash  $ 50

Explanation:

The entry on October 01 is to reflect the increase in Petty Cash from $ 250 to $ 300. i.e the incremental effect is only $ 50. This is because for the regular replenishment that was done on September 30, the following entry would have been recorded:

Petty Cash - Debit   $ 232

Cash          - Credit   $ 232

The entry for recording the petty cash expenses would be as follows;

Office Supplies expense         debit    $ 73

Merchandise Inventory           debit     $ 137

Miscellaneous expenses        debit      $ 22

Petty Cash                               credit     $ 232

7 0
3 years ago
Variable Costing—Sales Exceed Production The beginning inventory is 14,500 units. All of the units that were manufactured during
blagie [28]

Answer:

a. Variable costing income from operations <u>is greater than </u>absorption costing income from operations.

b. $870,000

Explanation:

a. Under Variable costing, only the variable manufacturing costs are apportioned to the units produced.

Cost under Variable costing are;

= 114 * 14,500

= $‭1,653,000‬

Under Absorption Costing, both fixed and variable costs are apportioned to the units produced.

Cost therefore is;

= (114 + 60) * 14,500

= $‭2,523,000‬

Variable costing income from operations is greater than absorption costing income from operations because Absorption costs yields more cost.

b.= Absorption cost - Variable cost

= ‭‭2,523,000‬ - 1,653,000‬

= $870,000

<em>Variable costing income from operation will be $870,000 higher than Absorption costing income from operations.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
Marmol Corporation uses the allowance method for bad debts. During year 1, Marmol charged $30,000 to bad debt expense, and wrote
4vir4ik [10]

Answer: Option (d)

Explanation:

Under this case the write off will be as follow:

                                                                      Debit         Credit

Allowance for doubtful accounts                25,200  

Accounts receivables                                                     25,200

Here, in this case the Allowance for the doubtful accounts and Accounts receivables are further decreased as the outcome of the transaction made. Thus, there will be no further effect on working capital. Therefore the $30,000 that is bad debt would then be stated as the credit to allowance account. This will then decrease the working capital by $30,000.

4 0
3 years ago
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