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3 years ago

Can someone please help me I really need help please help me thank you

Mathematics

2 answers:

REY [17]3 years ago

4 0

Answer: D 1800 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the interior angles can calculated by using the formula 180(n-2) where n is the number of sides of the shape. Plug 12 in for n and you'll get 1800 degrees which is the sum of all the interior angles in the polygon. Hope this helps :D

just olya [345]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

1800 or D.

Step-by-step explanation:

Ill post a link an article that can help you master this, I found it very useful. Tell me if you need help after reading it

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Underage drinking, Part I: Data collected by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMSHA) suggests tha

dezoksy [38]

Answer:

a. Yes, there are 10 independent trials, each with exactly two possible outcomes, and a constant probability associated with each possible outcome.

b. The probability is 0.2029 or 20.29%

c. The probability is 0.2029 or 20.29%

d. The probability is 0.1671 or 16.71%

e. The probability is 0.9975 or 99.75%

Step-by-step explanation:

a. Yes, there are 10 independent trials, each with exactly two possible outcomes, and a constant probability associated with each possible outcome.

b. Let's use the binomial distribution table, this way:

Binomial distribution (n=10, p=0.697)

f(x) F(x) 1 - F(x)

x Pr[X = x] Pr[X ≤ x]

0 0.0000 0.0000

1 0.0002 0.0002

2 0.0016 0.0017

3 0.0095 0.0112

4 0.0384 0.0496

5 0.1059 0.1555

6 0.2029 0.3584

7 0.2668 0.6252

8 0.2301 0.8553

9 0.1176 0.9729

10 0.0271 1.0000

The probability is 0.2029 or 20.29%

c. If 69.7% of 18-20 years old consumed alcoholic beverages in 2008, therefore, 30.3% did not and the binomial distribution table is:

Binomial distribution (n=10, p=0.303)

f(x) F(x) 1 - F(x)

x Pr[X = x] Pr[X ≤ x]

0 0.0271 0.0271

1 0.1176 0.1447

2 0.2301 0.3748

3 0.2668 0.6416

4 0.2029 0.8445

5 0.1059 0.9504

6 0.0384 0.9888

7 0.0095 0.9983

8 0.0016 0.9998

9 0.0002 1.0000

10 0.0000 1.0000

The probability is 0.2029 or 20.29%

d. Let's use the binomial distribution table, this way:

Binomial distribution (n=5, p=0.697)

f(x) F(x) 1 - F(x)

x Pr[X = x] Pr[X ≤ x]

0 0.0026 0.0026

1 0.0294 0.0319

2 0.1351 0.1671

3 0.3109 0.4779

4 0.3576 0.8355

5 0.1645 1.0000

P(0) + P(1) + P (2) = 0.0026 + 0.0294 + 0.1351

The probability is 0.1671 or 16.71%

e. Using the same binomial distribution table we used in d. we have:

P(1) + P (2) + P(3) + P(4) + P (5) = 0.0294 + 0.1351 + 0.3109 + 0.3576 + 0.1645

The probability is 0.9975 or 99.75%

7 0

3 years ago

On a test, Marcus answered 12 out of the first 15 problems correctly. If this rate continues

Deffense [45]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

3 years ago

3. Classify the number: -4

BabaBlast [244]

Answer:

Aight.

Rational, Real, Integer, Negative

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How do you do this question?

daser333 [38]

Answer:

B. 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

$\lim_{z \to 0} \frac{g(z)e^{-z}-3}{z^{2}-2z}$

If we plug in 0 for z, we get 0/0. Apply l'Hopital's rule.

$\lim_{z \to 0} \frac{-g(z)e^{-z}+g'(z)e^{-z}}{2z-2}$

Now when we plug in 0 for z, we get:

$\frac{-g(0)e^{0}+g'(0)e^{0}}{2(0)-2}\\\frac{-g(0)+g'(0)}{-2}\\\frac{-3+2}{-2}\\\frac{1}{2}$

4 0

3 years ago

Michael gets 52% better at press ups. He used to be able to do 62. How many can he do now?

maria [59]

Answer:

94 press ups

Step-by-step explanation:

62 x 1.52 = 94.24

≈94

4 0

3 years ago