We must fine the conversion for this, so we have to divide $270 by 200€ to get 1.35 Dollars for every Euro..
Now we multiply 300 by 1.35 to get 405 dollars
A: the formula would be f(x) = P(R) ^T or f(x) = Principle(rate)^time
B: f(x) = 20,000(0.85)^5
C: = 8,874.10625
D: Yes, the final answer makes sense compared to the origional cost of the car in relation to the formula. As well, time decreases the value of a car, so for the cost to be so low only makes sense due to the cars decrease in value or an extended and elongated amount of time.
E: You can solve this equation graphically by plotting th point at 20,000 and then taking 85% of 20,000 and plotting it each time until you get to the fifth year.
Answer:
-5
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
<em>Hope the link helps! Sorry I didn't explain. I couldn't find the less than sign. </em>
The law of cosines for this particular situation is b^2 = a^2 + c^2 - 2ac cosB.
Filling in what you know, you have b^2 = 25 + 49 - [2(5)(7)-.1908], which simplifies to b^2 = 74 - 69.8092 which gives you a b^2 value of 4.1908, but you have to take the square root of that so you get a side value for b of 2.05.
