The receivables turnover ratio is an
activity ratio computing how proficiently a firm uses its assets.
Receivables turnover ratio can be calculated by:
net value of credit sales during a given period divided by the average
accounts receivables.
Receivables turnover = sales / receivable
= 4,515,830 / 336,500
= 13.42
Days’ sales in receivables = 365 days/ receivable turnover
= 365 / 13.42
= 27.20
The average collection period is 27.20 days.
Answer:
The answer is D.
Explanation:
A scope limitation in audit means circumstances hindering an auditor from carrying out his duties according to the audit procedure. A scope limitation can make an auditor issue a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion depending on the materiality of the issue.
Back to the question, a scope limitation sufficient to preclude an unqualified opinion always will result when management refuses to provide a representation letter acknowledging its responsibility for the fair presentation of the financial statements in conformity with General Accepted Accounting Principle (GAAP)
Answer: No.
Explanation:
This is a Perfectly Competitive market and that means that you are a price taker who maximises output at a point where Marginal Revenue equals Marginal Cost ( MR = MC). As costs have gone up, it simply means that for the conditions to be satisfied, you need to produce less at the factory in Connecticut.
That does not mean that you have to produce more at the Massachusetts plant because it is already producing at capacity and increasing the marginal cost would violate the MR=MC rule as you have no control over the price so you cannot change Marginal Revenue. It is therefore better to keep the production level at the Massachusetts plant unchanged.
Answer:
The annuity will cost him $963,212.95.-
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $75,000
Interest rate= 0.0525
n= 20
First, we need to calculate the final value. We will use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i + {[A*(1+i)^n]-A}
A= annual cash flow
FV= {75,000*[(1.0525^20) - 1]/0.0525} + {[75,000*(1.0525^20)] - 75,000}
FV= 2,546,491.88 + 133,690.82= $2,680,182.70
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 2,680,182.70/(1.0525^20)
PV= $963,212.95
Answer: a. Increase in financing activities for the issuance and a decrease in financing activities for the dividends.
Explanation:
When using the Indirect method of the Cash Flow Statement, you will find 3 sections namely, the Operating Activities, Investing Activities and Financing Activities.
The Operating Activities deal with the normal business Transactions and related entries that keep the business running.
Investing Activities have to do with entries related to Non Current Assets as well as stocks and bonds in other companies.
The above relates to the Financing Section that handles the raising of Capital needed to run the business. They include long term debt and Equity.
When new Equity is announced it is a Cash inflow for the business meaning that there will be an INCREASE in Financing Activities.
Dividends have the effect of reducing Equity so it is a Cash Outflow. This means that there will be a DECREASE in Financing Activities as a result of the declared Dividends.
