Success = p
failure = (1-p)
is the correct first step.
To find the probability of at least one success, P(X>0), it is much easier to first calculate the probability of P(X=0)=NO success. Then the complement of
P(X=0)'=1-P(X=0) = P(>0) = probability of at least one success.
By the multiplication rule,
P(X=0)=(1-p)^9
or the binomial distribution
P(X=0)=C(9,0)(p^0)(1-p)^9=1*1*(1-p)^9=(1-p)^9
So the probability of at least one success = 1-P(X=0)
=1-(1-p)^9
Answer:
Find out the what does the value 500 represent in this situation .
To prove
As given
The amount of money in a savings account after t years is represented by the function.
Exponential function for amount is given by .

Wher a is the initial value, r is the rate in decimal form and t is the time.
Compare the functions
and

Thus a = 500
Therefor $500 is the initial value .
The factored form of an equation is done by rewriting the equation in simpler forms.
The completely factored form of
is 
The expression is given as:

Factor out x from the expression, 

Express 64 as 8^2

Express the expression as a difference of two squares

Hence, the completely factored form of
is 
Read more about factorization at:
brainly.com/question/3024511
There are 8 quarters, 40 nickels, 20 dimes and then there are 200 pennies
I hope this helps