Answer:
The estimated bad debt expense for the year amounts to $9,400
Explanation:
The estimated bad debt expense for the year is computed as:
As the percentage of credit sales method is used for estimating the bad debt expense. Therefore, it is computed as:
Bad debt expense = Net Credit Sales × Estimate Percent
where
Net credit sales amounts to $188,000
Estimate percent is 5%
So, putting the values above:
Bad debt expense = $188,000 × 5%
Bad debt expense = $9,400
Therefore, the bad debt expense amounts to $9,400
Answer:
Realized gain $110,000
Recognized gain $110,000
Explanation:
The computation of the Tonya's realized and recognized gain is shown below:
Amount realized by Tonya (fair market value) $560,000
Less; Amount given by Tonya
Yacht: adjusted basis ($250000)
Assumption of Nancy's mortgage ($200000)
Realized gain $110,000
Recognized gain $110,000
a. The amount that will go to the preferred stockholders is $400,000.
b. The amount of the declared dividend that will be available for common stock dividends is $200,000 ($600,000 - $400,000).
Data and Calculations:
Cumulative Preferred Stock Outstanding = 100,000 shares
Dividends per share = $2
Cumulative Preferred Dividend last year = $200,000 (100,000 x $2)
Preferred Dividend this year = $200,000 (100,000 x $2)
Total preferred dividend to be paid this year = $400,000
Thus, the Preferred Stockholders will be paid $400,000 ($200,000 for last year and $200,000 for this year).
Learn more: brainly.com/question/24297088
Answer: $2,025
Explanation:
Your monthly payment based on the rate of 6.3% per annum is:
= (6.3% * 1,620,000 ) / 12 months
= 102,060 / 12
= $8,505
Now that the rate has gone up to 7.8% per annum, the payment is:
= (7.8% * 1,620,000 ) / 12 months
= 126,360 / 12
= $10,530
Payment went up by:
= 10,530 - 8,505
= $2,025
Answer:
The solution to this question can be defined as follows:
Explanation:
In point a:
When consumer interest decreases, => consumers begin and save less and more, => MPC decreases; => the "IS" curve becomes flatter; => "IS" turns inside. Currently, 'AD' shows together all the goods and financial sector, => as the 'IS' curve adjusts inside the industry, => the 'AD' would also change to the left.
In point b:
Take into account the SR models of "IS-LM" and "AD-AS."
Therefore there is the case of a full job only at the beginning; => its optimum between "IS1" and "LM" in the "IS-LM" model; as well as the main equilibrium among "AD1" and "AS" in the "AD-AS" model "E1'," => the original equilibrium among "Y=Yf," "r=r1" and "P=P1." That now the consumer is reducing the confidence, => the 'IS' curve becomes shifting IMEI 'IS2,' => provided the 'LM' curve, that new balance is 'E2.' That's why the price in the SR is calculated, the AS will change =>, however, the AD also will shift the "AD2" side and "E2'" will become the equilibrium point in the "AD-AS" system, "r=r2 <r1" and "P=P1" throughout the new "Y=Y2 <Yf" balance.
Please find the graph file in the attachment.
