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3 years ago

How do you write 70,000,000+400,000+10,000+8,000+500+30+9 in word form

2 answers:

5 0

Seventy Thousand plus Four Hundred Thousand plus Ten Thousand plus Eight Thousand plus Five Hundred plus Thirty plus Nine.

melomori [17]3 years ago

4 0

70,418,539 seventy thousand four hundred eighteen thousand five hundred thirty-nine

have a good rest of the day!!!

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Perform the indicated operations; reduce the answer to lowest terms.

kow [346]

a. 9/10

explanation:

• the denominators (bottom number) are the same so there is no need to change to a common factor

• because the fractions have common factors, you add the top numbers (3+6) to get 9

• then you put the top number over the 10 (9/10) and it’s simplified as much as possible

b. 3/4

explanation:

• each denominator (bottom term) is a factor of 12 so you have to change each fraction to #/12

• to change 1/3, you multiply the top and bottom numbers by 4 (1x4 & 3x4 = 4/12)

• to change 1/4, you multiply the top and bottom numbers by 3 (1x3 & 4x3 = 3/12)

• to change 1/6, you multiple the top and bottom numbers by 2 (1x2 & 6x2 = 2/12)

• then you add each of the top numbers (4+3+2) and put it over the common denominator (12) to get 9/12

- both 9 & 12 are divisible by 3, so you simply by dividing both by 3 to get 3/4

c. 1/3

explanation:

•the denominators are the same, so you subtract 5-3 without changing the denominator & you get 2/6

• then, because both numbers are divisible by 2, you divide both by 2 and get 1/3

3 0

3 years ago

Box of 15 gadgets is known to contain 5 defective gadgets if 4 gadgets are drawn at random what is the probability of finding no

baherus [9]

To solve this problem, we make use of the Binomial Probability equation which is mathematically expressed as:

P = [n! / r! (n – r)!] p^r * q^(n – r)

where,

n = the total number of gadgets = 4

r = number of samples = 1 and 2 (since not more than 2)

p = probability of success of getting a defective gadget

q = probability of failure = 1 – p

Calculating for p:

p = 5 / 15 = 0.33

So,

q = 1 – 0.33 = 0.67

Calculating for P when r = 1:

P (r = 1) = [4! / 1! 3!] 0.33^1 * 0.67^3

P (r = 1) = 0.3970

Calculating for P when r = 2:

P (r = 2) = [4! / 2! 2!] 0.33^2 * 0.67^2

P (r = 2) = 0.2933

Therefore the total probability of not getting more than 2 defective gadgets is:

P = 0.3970 + 0.2933

P = 0.6903

Hence there is a 0.6903 chance or 69.03% probability of not getting more than 2 defective gadgets.

5 0

3 years ago

PLZ HELP ME ☻ <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5C%5B%5Cfrac%7Bxy%7D%7Bx%20%2B%20y%7D%20%3D%201%2C%20%5Cquad%20%5Cfrac%7Bxz%7D%

Yanka [14]

Answer:

$x=\frac{12}{7} \\y=\frac{12}{5} \\z=-12$

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's re-write the equations in order to get the variables as separated in independent terms as possible \:

First equation:

$\frac{xy}{x+y} =1\\xy=x+y\\1=\frac{x+y}{xy} \\1=\frac{1}{y} +\frac{1}{x}$

Second equation:

$\frac{xz}{x+z} =2\\xz=2\,(x+z)\\\frac{1}{2} =\frac{x+z}{xz} \\\frac{1}{2} =\frac{1}{z} +\frac{1}{x}$

Third equation:

$\frac{yz}{y+z} =3\\yz=3\,(y+z)\\\frac{1}{3} =\frac{y+z}{yz} \\\frac{1}{3}=\frac{1}{z} +\frac{1}{y}$

Now let's subtract term by term the reduced equation 3 from the reduced equation 1 in order to eliminate the term that contains "y":

$1=\frac{1}{y} +\frac{1}{x} \\-\\\frac{1}{3} =\frac{1}{z} +\frac{1}{y}\\\frac{2}{3} =\frac{1}{x} -\frac{1}{z}$

Combine this last expression term by term with the reduced equation 2, and solve for "x" :

$\frac{2}{3} =\frac{1}{x} -\frac{1}{z} \\+\\\frac{1}{2} =\frac{1}{z} +\frac{1}{x} \\ \\\frac{7}{6} =\frac{2}{x}\\ \\x=\frac{12}{7}$

Now we use this value for "x" back in equation 1 to solve for "y":

$1=\frac{1}{y} +\frac{1}{x} \\1=\frac{1}{y} +\frac{7}{12}\\1-\frac{7}{12}=\frac{1}{y} \\ \\\frac{1}{y} =\frac{5}{12} \\y=\frac{12}{5}$

And finally we solve for the third unknown "z":

$\frac{1}{2} =\frac{1}{z} +\frac{1}{x} \\\\\frac{1}{2} =\frac{1}{z} +\frac{7}{12} \\\\\frac{1}{z} =\frac{1}{2}-\frac{7}{12} \\\\\frac{1}{z} =-\frac{1}{12}\\z=-12$

8 0

3 years ago

Y = 4x - 3<br> What the answer

serg [7]

Answer:

what's the question, what is it asking for??

5 0

3 years ago

In the diagram AB is parallel to CD. Calculate the value of A ?

olga55 [171]

The image of the diagram is missing, so i have attached it.

Answer:

a = 30°

Step-by-step explanation:

From the diagram attached, we can see that the 2 angles a and 5a are interior supplementary angles.

The sum of interior supplementary angles is 180°

Thus;

5a + a = 180

6a = 180

a = 180/6

a = 30°

4 0

3 years ago