Answer:



Step-by-step explanation:
Given
--- 8 friends
--- proportion that one-time fling
This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling




Solving (b): 
To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

Rewrite as:



Solving (c):
--- Not more than 2 has one time fling
This is calculated as:

We have:







So:



Answer:
the answer is D
Step-by-step explanation:
that is R ND Q re on the same line as well as S ND
Answer:
x = 3
Step-by-step explanation:
given
4(x - 8) + 10 = - 10 ← subtract 10 from both sides
4(x - 8) = - 20 ← divide both sides by 4
x - 8 = - 5 ← add 8 to both sides
x = 3
Answer: The answer is A
Step-by-step explanation: Because 6*20= 120