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3 years ago

Help im need a friend hmuuuuuuu

Mathematics

2 answers:

Alekssandra [29.7K]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

ill be ur freind!!

Step-by-step explanation:

igor_vitrenko [27]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Ight bet

Step-by-step explanation:

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I want to know how to solve this equation

Sphinxa [80]

Answer:

one property of log is that if the log expressions have the same base (in this case, 2), then you can multiply the added logs.

The answer would then be D

3 0

3 years ago

Students make 76.5 ounces of liquid soap for a craft fair they put the soap in 4.5 ounces bottles and sell each bottle for 5.59

liberstina [14]

Answer:

95.03

Step-by-step explanation: Divide 76.5 by 4.5

Now you have 17

Now, multiply 17 by 5.59.

Good job, these students are now successful coronavirus fighters.

8 0

4 years ago

Which pair of functions have the same domain? A. F(x)= sin x and g(x) = tan x B. F(x) = cos x and f(x) = csc x C. G(x) = tan x a

EastWind [94]

Answer:

The correct choice is D

Step-by-step explanation:

The trigonometric functions, $\sin x$ and $\cos x$ are defined for all real numbers.

$\tan x=\frac{\sin x}{\cos (x)}$ , this function is not defined where $\cos x=0$ .

$\cot x=\frac{\cos x}{\sin (x)}$ , this function is not defined where $\sin x=0$ .

$\csc x=\frac{1}{\sin (x)}$ , this function is not defined where $\sin x=0$ .

For option A

The domain of $f(x)=\sin(x)$ is all real numbers.

The domain of g(x) =tanx is $x\ne \frac{(2n+1)\pi}{2}$

For option B

The domain of $f(x)=\cos(x)$ is all real numbers.

The domain of f(x) =csc(x) is $x\ne n\pi$

For option C,

The domain of G(x) =tanx is $x\ne \frac{(2n+1)\pi}{2}$

The domain of f(x) =cot(x) is $x\ne n\pi$

For option D;

The domain of f(x) =cot(x) is $x\ne n\pi$

The domain of f(x) =csc(x) is $x\ne n\pi$

3 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Philip saves $8 each month. How many months will it take him to save at least $60?

mars1129 [50]

7.5 months for him to save up to 60 ;)

8 0

4 years ago

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Sean has some candy bars that he wants to give away. He is going to give each person \dfrac18 8 1 start fraction, 1, divided b

Afina-wow [57]

Answer:

22 people

Step-by-step explanation:

Sean has 2 3/4 candy bars. That is 11/4 candy bars.

He wants to give out 1/8 candy bars.

The number of people that will get candy is:

$\frac{11}{4} / \frac{1}{8}\\ \\= \frac{\frac{11}{4} }{\frac{1}{8}} \\\\\frac{11}{4} * \frac{8}{1} \\\\22$

22 people can get candy.

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers