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dybincka [34]
4 years ago
15

Aaron purchased footballs from Matthew for $370. Matthew had purchased the footballs from Tom by providing Tom with a bad check.

Tom contacted Matthew after he learned Matthew did not have sufficient funds in his account and demanded that Matthew return the footballs. Matthew informed him that he had already sold them to Aaron.
Business
1 answer:
LenaWriter [7]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The principle in Law 'Nemo dat quod non habet' states that an individual connot give what he does not have

Indeed Tom can rescind the contract with Matthew as he possesses voidable title to the balls

Explanation:

Until consideration has moved from Matthew to Tom the validity of the agreement/Contract remains inconclusive.

Considering his Account is not funded means he has no valid title to the Balls, he is merely in possession of the Balls but not the Owner.

Tom can sue demanding a return of the Balls irrespective of Matthew having sold them to Aaron.

Another illustration could be given of a thief who sells off a property. Inspite of the Buyer being unaware, because the thief has a voidable title it makes the transaction invalid.

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A Japanese company has a bond outstanding that sells for 87 percent of its ¥100,000 par value. The bond has a coupon rate of 4.3
PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer:

YTM = 12.66%

Explanation:

FV = ¥100,000

PV = 0.87 x  ¥100,000

PV=  ¥87,000

Coupon payment = 4.3% x ¥100,000

Coupon payment = ¥4300 per year

N = 18 years

YTM = ?

We would simply plug these values into a financial calculator

https://www.calculator.net/finance-calculator.html?ctype=returnrate&ctargetamountv=1000000&cyearsv=18&cstartingprinciplev=87000&cinterestratev=6&ccontributeamountv=4300&ciadditionat1=end&printit=0&x=0&y=0

YTM = 12.66%

8 0
3 years ago
Use the graph to answer the question that follows. Graph has quantity along the horizontal axis and price along the vertical axi
Jlenok [28]

The statement that would describe the shift from D1 to D2 is Demand for the product increased.

<h3>Why was there a shift from D1 to D2?</h3>

D2 is a curve that is to the right of D1 which means that it represents a higher level of demand for goods and services.

This means that for the demand to move from D1 to D2, there must have been an increase in the demand for the good or service and this could have been for any number of reasons including a reduction in the price of complimentary goods.

Find out more on determinants of demand at brainly.com/question/1245771

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8 0
1 year ago
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I am Lyosha [343]

Answer:

fees paid at the end of a real estate transaction.

4 0
4 years ago
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Blizzard [7]

Answer:

E. Procurement Requester

Explanation:

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Alja [10]

product advertising is the answer

6 0
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