Rewrite the following using the GCF and distributive properly : <br><br> 63+ 27

Ally has 2 brothers and 3 sisters. In total, the mean of their ages is 6. What are their ages? And what will the mean be in 10 y

mezya [45]

1 1 1 and 2 1 are the ages 11 11 11 11 and 12 in 10 years

4 0

3 years ago

5. Find the slope of the line through the given points.<br> (10, 4), (4, 15)

Rama09 [41]

-11/6, is the slope and is simplified

6 0

3 years ago

with the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on "any given Sunday" any team could beat any other team. If we assume every wee

prohojiy [21]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability like this:

$P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1)$

And using the complement rule we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability like this:

$P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

7 0

3 years ago

Pls pls pls help if ur good with angles and sides

liq [111]

Answer:

∆PQR: Equilateral Triangle

∆PRT: Scalene Triangle

∆TQS: Isosceles Triangle

∆QNP: Right Triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

∆PQR is an Equilateral Triangle because all of its angles are equal (60°).

∆PRT is a Scalene Triangle because none of its sides are equal.

The triangle above it is equilateral, and one side length is 14, meaning all of its side lengths are 14.

This makes the top of ∆PRT 14. The hypotenuse is given and it’s 18.

The last side left is clearly shorter than both, meaning none of the sides are equal.

∆TQS is an Isosceles Triangle because 2 angles are equal.

The base angles are both 76°.

∆QNP is a Right Triangle because segment QN and PR are perpendicular, creating two 90° angles on both sides.

For number 10, I suggest using a graphing calculator or desmos to graph the points. (Or you can just add the points but I suggest graphing).

From there, you can count the length of each side.

Segment DE: 9

Segment EF: 8

Segment FD: 10

This makes ∆DEF in number 10 a Scalene Triangle because none of its sides are equal.

For number 11, I also suggest graphing the points and counting the sides.

Segment DE: 7

Segment EF: 9

Segment FD: 7

This makes ∆DEF in number 11 an Isosceles Triangle because 2 of its sides are equal.

Hope this helps! :)

4 0

3 years ago

8m-6=2(4m-_____) <br> Factoring using GFC

Shtirlitz [24]

8m-6= 2(4m-3)

all you needed to do was to divide 2 into every
term

Hope this helps

6 0

3 years ago

Rewrite the following using the GCF and distributive properly : 63+ 27