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Mrrafil [7]
3 years ago
5

During the last half of 2008, the Fed seemed to take "baby steps" in reducing the federal-funds rate target, before finally lowe

ring it to zero. Why can't the Fed push the rate any lower than zero? Why do you think that the Fed was so seemingly reluctant to push the rate all the way to the floor?
Business
1 answer:
emmasim [6.3K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Why can't the Fed push the rate any lower than zero?

Real interest rates can be lower than zero, or negative (because inflation rate is higher than interest rate), but nominal interest rates are generally only limited to zero. But during this same time, the European Central Bank actually started paying negative interest rates on money deposits and many European private banks followed. That means that they charged people for having their money on the bank.

Why do you think that the Fed was so seemingly reluctant to push the rate all the way to the floor?

The reason why the Fed was not willing to push the interest rates to zero or even below zero was that by doing so, the US dollar would have depreciated or lost value. In Europe this was done to encourage people to spend their money and not save as much, but in the US that is not really a problem. Generally in the US the problem is that people spend too much and save too little, but on some European countries and Japan, people tend to save too much. For example in Japan the national savings rate fluctuates between 22-40%, while the maximum savings rate in the US has been 10.4% in 1960, it currently is around 7.6%.

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Garcia Company reports the following information: Net operating income after taxes $100,000 Before-tax operating income $300,000
Andrew [12]

Answer:

B) $50,000

Explanation:

Cost of Capital is the rate which is required by the capital investment by the shareholders or owners of the business. Residual Income is the portion of net income after paying the investors of the company. This income is reinvested or retained by the business.

Net operating Income after tax = $100,000

Average Invested Capital = $500,000

Cost of Capital = $500,000 x 10% = $50,000

Residual Income = Net Income - Cost of capital

Residual Income = $100,000 - $50,000

Residual Income = $50,000

7 0
3 years ago
A total materials variance is analyzed in terms of quantity and quality variances. tight and loose variances. price and quantity
madreJ [45]

Answer:

price and quantity variances.

Explanation:

In Financial accounting, costing is the measurement of the cost of production of goods and services by assessing the fixed costs and variable costs associated with each step of production.

Manufacturing costs can be defined as the overall costs associated with the acquisition of resources such as materials and the cost of converting these raw materials into finished goods. Manufacturing costs include direct labor costs, direct materials cost and manufacturing overhead costs.

Total direct materials variance gives the difference between the budgeted cost and actual cost of a unit of goods produced.

Generally, a total materials variance is analyzed in terms of price and quantity variances used by a manufacturer in the manufacturing of a particular product.

7 0
3 years ago
Which is a reason why it is important to organize information before preparing a business report?
inna [77]

Answer:

the answeris B, hope this helps

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the cell membrane? ​
Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

a cell membrane is a double layer of lipids and proteins that surrounds a cell

6 0
3 years ago
Global Pistons​ (GP) has common stock with a market value of $ 200$200 million and debt with a value of $ 100$100 million. Inves
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

a. Suppose GP issues $ 100$100 million of new stock to buy back the debt. What is the expected return of the stock after this​ transaction?

  • 12%

b. Suppose instead GP issues $ 50.00$50.00 million of new debt to repurchase stock. i. If the risk of the debt does not​ change, what is the expected return of the stock after this​ transaction?

  • 18%

ii. If the risk of the debt​ increases, would the expected return of the stock be higher or lower than when debt is issued to repurchase stock in part ​(i​)?

  • If the risk of the debt increases, then the cost of the debt will increase. Therefore, the company will need to spend more money paying the interests related to the new debt which would decrease the ROE compared to the 18% of (i). Since we do not know the new cost of the debt, we cannot know exactly by how much it will affect the ROE, but I assume it will still be higher than the previous ROE.

Explanation:

common stock $200 million

total debt $100 million

required rate of return 15%

cost of debt 6%

current profits = ($200 million x 15%) + ($100 x 6%) = $30 million + $6 million = $36 million

if equity increases to $300 million, ROI = 36/300 = 12

if instead new debt is issued at 6%:

equity 150 million, debt 150 million

cost of debt = 150 million x 6% = $9 million

remaining profits = $36 - $9 = $27 million

ROI = 27/150 = 18%

3 0
3 years ago
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