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borishaifa [10]
3 years ago
13

What is the practice of banks and mortgage lenders identifying high-risk areas (usually low-income or minority neighborhoods) an

d either refusing mortgages to applicants from those neighborhoods or offering loans at prohibitively high rates?
Business
1 answer:
Bogdan [553]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

redlining

Explanation:

Redlining is an illegal banking practice that focuses on neighborhoods that are mostly inhabited by minorities. The term redlining itself comes from the practice of marking neighborhoods on city maps with red lines to represent them as dangerous both for banking purposes and high crime rates.

Banks cannot directly deny a credit based on where you live, but they can charge very high interest rates that make them very difficult to pay, or simply ask for a lot of paperwork and more requirements than usual.

You might be interested in
For each of the following scenarios, begin by assuming that all demand factors are set to their original values and Peacock is c
Elden [556K]

<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

For every one of the accompanying situations, start by expecting that all interest factors are set to their unique qualities and Peacock is charging $300 per room every night.  

1) If the normal family unit pays increments by 20%, from $50,000 to $60,000 every year, the amount of rooms requested at the Peacock ascends from 200 rooms every night to 250 rooms every night. Accordingly, the pay flexibility of interest is certain, implying that lodgings at the Peacock are ordinary products.  

<u>Explanation:</u> Income elasticity of demand = 25% divide by 20% = 1.3

At the point when raise in salary prompts an expansion in the amount requested (or a fall in pay prompts a fall in the amount requested), the great is known as an ordinary decent.  

2) In the event that the cost of an aircraft ticket from JFK to LAS was to increment by 10%, from $200 to $220 roundtrip, while all other interest factors stay at their underlying qualities, the amount of rooms requested at the Peacock tumbles from 200 rooms for every night to 150 rooms for each night. Since the cross-value versatility of interest is negative, lodgings at the Peacock and aircraft trips among JFK and LAS are supplements.

<u>Explanation:</u> Cross elasticity of demand = -25% divide by 10% = -2.5

Two merchandise ordered supplements when a raise the cost of one great abatement the amount requested of the other or when a fall in the cost of one great expands the amount requested of the other.  

3) Peacock is discussing diminishing the cost of its rooms to $275 every night. Under the underlying interest conditions, you can see this would make its all-out income increment. Diminishing the cost will consistently have this impact on income when Peacock is working on the flexible part of its interest bend.  

<u>Explanation:</u> Total revenue = $300 per room per night multiply with 200 rooms = $60,000 per night

By bringing down its cost to $275, Triple Sevens can occupy 225 rooms. In such situation, all-out income is $275 per room every night multiply 225 rooms = $61,875 every night  

At the point when the request is versatile, the rate change in cost is littler than the rate change in an amount as the purchasers are exceptionally delicate to changes in cost.

8 0
3 years ago
Nash Co. sells $435,000 of 12% bonds on June 1, 2020. The bonds pay interest on December 1 and June 1. The due date of the bonds
garri49 [273]

Answer:

\left[\begin{array}{ccccccc}\\ &&$Carrying Value&$Cash&$Int. exp&$Amortization&$E.Carrying\\& 1&493574.88&26100&19743&6357&487217.88\\& 2&487217.88&26100&19488.72&6611.28&480606.6\\& 3&480606.6&26100&19224.26&6875.74&473730.86\\& 4&473730.86&26100&18949.23&7150.77&466580.09\\& 5&466580.09&26100&18663.2&7436.8&459143.29\\& 6&459143.29&26100&18365.73&7734.27&451409.02\\& 7&451409.02&26100&18056.36&8043.64&443365.38\\& 8&443365.38&26100&17734.62&8365.38&435000\\\end{array}\right]

<u>Journal entries:</u>

cash       493,574.88 debit

 bonds payable   435,000.00 credit

 premium on bp     58,574.88 credit

--to record issuance--

Interest expense 19743

Amortization 6357

cash 26100

--to record Dec 31st, 2020--

Interest expense 19488.72

Amortization 6611.28

cash 26100

--to record June 30th, 2021--

bonds payable    130,500.00 debit

premium on bp       13,681.98 debit

interest expense    17,400.00 debit

      gain on redemption           25,081.98 credit

       cash                                 136,500.00 credit

--to record redemption--

premium on BP      4,813.04 debit

interest expense  13,456.96 debit

        cash                         18,270 credit

-- to record December 31st, 2021--

Explanation:

First, we solve for the proceeds from the bonds payable:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 26,100 (435,000 x 12% / 2)

time 8 ( 4 years x 2)

yield to maturity  0.04 ( 8% / 2)

26100 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-8} }{0.04} = PV\\

PV $175,724.6412

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   435,000.00

time   8.00

rate  0.04

\frac{435000}{(1 + 0.04)^{8} } = PV  

PV   317,850.24

PV c $175,724.6412

PV m  $317,850.2392

Total $493,574.8804

We now build the amortization schedule.

We take this value, we multiply by the interest rate and then, solve for amortization and ending carrying value.

<u>To record the redemption:</u>

accrued interest:

435,000 x 0.12 x 4/12 (months from June to oct) = 17,400

premium:

480,606.6 - 435,000 = 45,606.6

proportional of premium:

45,606 / 435,000 x 130,500 = 13.681,98

we now solve for the gain/loss on redemption:

130,500 + 13,681.98 + 17,400 = 161.581,9 value redeem

                                      for cash 136,500

gain on redemption 25.081,98

bonds payable    130,500.00 debit

premium on bp       13,681.98 debit

interest expense    17,400.00 debit

      gain on redemption           25,081.98 credit

       cash                                 136,500.00 credit

Now, we solve for Dec 31st, 2021 entry.

bonds payable: 435,000 - 130,500 = 304,500

premium: 45,606 - 13,681.98 = 31.924,02

interest expense:

(304,500 + 31,924.02) x 0.04 = 13,456.96

cash outlay:

304,500 x 0.06 = 18,270

amortization 18,270 - 13,456.96 = 4,813.04

6 0
3 years ago
John owns a second home in Palm Springs, California. During the year he rented the home for $4,000 for 36 days and used the hous
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

Option (C) is correct.

Explanation:

Total expenses:

= mortgage interest + property tax + utilities and maintenance + Depreciation expense

= $5,000 + $600 +  $900 + $3,500

= $10,000

Proportionate rental expenses = Total expenses × \frac{36\ days}{(36 + 14) days}

Proportionate rental expenses = 10,000 × \frac{36\ days}{(36 + 14) days}

= $7,200

Rental Loss = Rental Income - Proportionate rental expenses

                   = $4,000 - $7,200

                   = -($3,200)

7 0
3 years ago
Vaughn Manufacturing's allowance for uncollectible accounts was $190000 at the end of 2020 and $178000 at the end of 2019. For t
Colt1911 [192]

Answer: $19000

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that Vaughn Manufacturing's allowance for uncollectible accounts was $190000 at the end of 2020 and $178000 at the end of 2019 and that for the year ended December 31, 2020, Vaughn reported bad debt expense of $31000 in its income statement.

The amount that Vaughn debited to the appropriate account in 2020 to write off actual bad debts will be:

= $31000 - ($190000 - $178000)

= $31000 - $12000

= $19000

8 0
3 years ago
For most producing firms:_______.
irinina [24]

Answer:

letter a is the correct answer

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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