Answer:
[4, positive infinity]
Step-by-step explanation:
since f(4) exists, the interval starts at 4, and continues to infinity.
Answer:
q.4 's answer is d. miles
q.5 's answer is 3
q.6 's answer is 6
can you tell what the dot means i can tell you the other two's too
Answer:
a. 
Step-by-step explanation:
The given equation is;
To solve by the x-intercept method we need to graph the corresponding function using a graphing calculator or software.
The corresponding function is
The solution to is where the graph touches the x-axis.
We can see from the graph that; the x-intercepts are;
(-1,0),(3,0) and (6,0).
Therefore the real solutions are:
If
then
The ODE in terms of these series is
We can solve the recurrence exactly by substitution:
So the ODE has solution
which you may recognize as the power series of the exponential function. Then
Answer:
(2, 1)
Step-by-step explanation:
The best way to do this to avoid tedious fractions is to use the addition method (sometimes called the elimination method). We will work to eliminate one of the variables. Since the y values are smaller, let's work to get rid of those. That means we have to have a positive and a negative of the same number so they cancel each other out. We have a 2y and a 3y. The LCM of those numbers is 6, so we will multiply the first equation by a 3 and the second one by a 2. BUT they have to cancel out, so one of those multipliers will have to be negative. I made the 2 negative. Multiplying in the 3 and the -2:
3(-9x + 2y = -16)--> -27x + 6y = -48
-2(19x + 3y = 41)--> -38x - 6y = -82
Now you can see that the 6y and the -6y cancel each other out, leaving us to do the addition of what's left:
-65x = -130 so
x = 2
Now we will go back to either one of the original equations and sub in a 2 for x to solve for y:
19(2) + 3y = 41 so
38 + 3y = 41 and
3y = 3. Therefore,
y = 1
The solution set then is (2, 1)
