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GaryK [48]
3 years ago
15

Speculative investments are high-risk investments with the possibility of high returns in a short period of time.

Business
2 answers:
bixtya [17]3 years ago
8 0
<span> <span>True. Risk in investment can be defined as the possibility that the investor may lose a big portion or all of the initial investment or make very high returns in a short period. Risk which is often likened to volatility dictates that the higher the volatility the higher the chances of returns. Speculative investments such as leveraged ETFs(commodities such as gold, oil, silver), options, venture capital trusts are considered high risk and often so offer handsome returns or cost the investor all or even more of their initial capital. It is however important to note that high risk does not automatically translate into high returns. The intrinsic value of the investment vehicle among other factors need to be considered in depth to determine if the investment is worth the risk</span></span>
oee [108]3 years ago
3 0

the answer would be true

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2. Lereve Company has recorded the following information about the results of its operations for the fourth quarter: Sales reven
Pepsi [2]

Answer:

Lereve Company

Segmented Income Statement for the fourth quarter:

                                   Total Company  Western Division  Eastern Division  

Sales revenues           $200,000              $80,000              $120,000

Variable cost of sales     60,000                 30,000                  30,000

Contribution                $140,000               $50,000               $90,000

Fixed costs:

Common                     $100,000               $25,000               $75,000

Traceable                       50,000                  20,000                 30,000    

Net Income (Loss)       ($10,000)                 $5,000              ($15,000)

The results show that the Eastern Division made a net loss of $15,000 and the Western Division raked in a net income of $5,000, which resulted in the company-wide net loss of $10,000.  This loss could be traced to the allocated common fixed costs of the division, because its contribution to fixed costs was substantial and better than the Western Division's.

Explanation:

When the results of the operations of a divisional company like Lereve Company are prepared in segmental form, the performance pictures become clearer.  Management is enabled to focus on the segments or the factors that are generating the loss to the company.  Perhaps, as in this case, the problem may not be with the division, but the allocation of fixed costs to the divisions.  It can still be traced to the company as a whole, since it is generating much more fixed costs than it could afford from its revenue.

3 0
3 years ago
In economics what does the term market referred to
Taya2010 [7]

I think it is the exchange of goods or services, which can be with or without money.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Currency (paper money plus coins) constitutes about: ____________
kirza4 [7]

Answer:

a. 57 percent of the U.S. M1 money supply.

7 0
2 years ago
Divine plc is a pure-honey producing plant. The firm wants to replace its aging processing machine. One option is to purchase a
AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

Project A

Years      Cashflows     Discount factor     Present values

0            250,000                    1                           -250,000

1-10            45,100                   6.144                     277,094.40

Sum of all present value=NPV=27,094.40

IRR (by using trial and error method) = 12.4696%

Note: Discount factor for the year 1-10 is calculated by using annuity formula i.e [1-(1+10%)]/10% = 6.144

Project B

Years Cashflows Discount factor  Present values

0        (350,000)           1                              (350,000)

1           72,500               0.91                   65,975  

2           65,500               0.83                    54,365  

3           73,800                  0.75                    55,350  

4            71,500                  0.68                    48,620  

5           69,800                  0.62                   43,276  

6           75,500             0.56                   42,280  

7           31,000                  0.51                            15,810  

8           47,500                  0.47                           22,325  

9           55,500                  0.42                   23,310  

10           29,200                  0.38                    11,096

Sum of all present values=NPV=32,407

IRR(by using trial and error method=12.4186%

On the basis of NPV project B is better because it gives higher NPV than project A. Whereas, Project A is better than project B on the basis of IRR because project A has slightly higher IRR than project B.

b)The conflict between both the investment appraisal technique is likely due to different cash flow patterns of both the project. In such situation decision should be based on NPV because this is an absolute measure

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A company wishes to raise $170 million by issuing 20-year annual coupon bonds. Each bond will have a face value of $1,000; coupo
Margarita [4]

Answer:

The answer to the question is B I51,753 bonds

Explanation:

The present price of the bond and the total amount to be raised of $170m were used in arriving at the number of bonds to be issued.

n 20  

Coupon 6.60%  

YTM 7.7%*1000=77  

FV 1000  

PV ($1,120.25)  

The current price of the bond   $1,120.25  

Total amount to be raised   $170,000,000  

Number of bonds to be issued=total amount /bond price    151,752 approx...151753

Find attached spreadsheet with formulas so as to be able to follow through.

Download xlsx
6 0
3 years ago
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