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tangare [24]
3 years ago
13

40.32 is 76.8% of what number?

Mathematics
2 answers:
julsineya [31]3 years ago
6 0
Hey there

Lets solve this question together, 

Convert <span>76.8%</span><span> to a decimal.
</span>
0.768 * x=40.32 

Multiply 0.768<span> by </span>x<span> to get </span><span>0.768x</span><span>. 
</span>
&#10;0.768x=40.32 

Multiply<span> each </span>term<span> by </span><span>1 / 0.768</span><span> and simplify.
</span>
Cancel the common factor of 0.768.

x=40.32 / 0.768 

Divide 40.32<span> by </span>0.768<span> to get </span><span>52.5 

</span>x=52.5 <span>
</span>
OLga [1]3 years ago
6 0
To answer this question, let x be the unknown number. From the given, the product of the number, x, and the decimal equivalent of the given percentage, 76.8%, is equal to 40.32. Mathematically,
                               (0.768)(x) = 40.32
The value of x from the equation is 52.5. 
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The change in value was 8% which amounts to $1630

Further explanation:

The change in value is calculated by using the initial price and selling price of the car.

Given

Purchase Price = P = $21330

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As the selling price is less than the purchase price, Cindy had loss.

Loss=L= Cost\ price-selling\ price\\=21330-19700\\=\$1630

Percentage of loss will be calculated as:

Percent\ loss=\frac{1630}{21330}*100\\=8\%

The change in value was 8% which amounts to $1630

Keywords: Loss, Percentage loss

Learn more about profit and loss at:

  • brainly.com/question/1563227
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This postulate also allows a line segment that has only two known points to be broken into two line segments with the addition of a third point in between the endpoints. This is useful for proofs in geometry and analysis.


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