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krok68 [10]
4 years ago
15

How do you find equivalent ratios? HELP HELP HELP!!! I NEED THE ANSWERS ASAP!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Furkat [3]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

multiply or divide both quantities by the same number

Step-by-step explanation:

To find an equivalent ratio, multiply or divide both quantities by the same number. It is the same process as finding equivalent fractions

Andreyy894 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1. True

5/7= 0.714285

20/28= 0.714285

2. False

11/13= 0.846

22/25= 0.88

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Which distributive property gives the same answer as 7(99)?
Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

7(100-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

That's it right there

6 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLIST
Yanka [14]
B. 906 inches ! Gooooood luck lol
6 0
3 years ago
What is the inequality for -4x-5<7?
diamong [38]

Answer:

x>-3

Step-by-step explanation:

Add five to both sides, getting rid of the five on the left and adding 5 to the 7.

Now you have -4x<12

Divide both sides by -4

Now you have x > -3

Whenever you divide by a negative you switch the signs.

5 0
3 years ago
Please help! thanks so much​
Stels [109]

Answer:

See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we can see that \lim_{x \to 2}  (f(x))= -1.

Thus, for the question, we can just plug -1 in:

\lim_{x \to 2} (\frac{x}{f(x)+1})=\frac{(2)}{-1+1}  =und.

Saying undefined (or unbounded) will be correct.

However, note that as x approaches 2, the values of y decrease in order to get to -1. In other words, f(x) will always be greater or equal to -1 (you can also see this from the graph). This means that as x approaches 2, f(x) will approach -.99 then -.999 then -.9999 until it reaches -1 and then go back up. What is important is that because of this, we can determine that:

\lim_{x \to 2} (\frac{x}{f(x)+1})=\frac{(2)}{-1+1}  = +\infty

This is because for the denominator, the +1 will always be greater than the f(x). This makes this increase towards positive infinity. Note that limits want the values of the function as it approaches it, not at it.

4 0
3 years ago
Help (the answer isn't the 3rd one my friend did this test and chose that and got it wrong please )
Arturiano [62]

Answer:

3  and 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

It is 3 and 1/3 because there are 3 fully shaded circles (3) then one of the three parts for one circle (1/3)

If it was wrong there is something wrong with the test lol.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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