Answer:
40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them
Step-by-step explanation:
For each target, there are only two possible outcomes. Either he hits it, or he does not. The probability of hitting a target is independent of other targets. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which 
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And p is the probability of X happening.
0.95 probaiblity of hitting a target
This means that 
10 targets
This means that 
What is the probability that he will miss at least one of them?
Either he hits all the targets, or he misses at least one of them. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So
We want P(X < 10). So
In which
40.1% probability that he will miss at least one of them
Answer:
60
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Step 1: Solve for x</u>
x + 3x + 2x = 180
6x / 6 = 180 / 6
x = 30
<u>Step 2: Find the measure of angle C</u>
Angle C = 2x
Angle C = 2(30)
Angle C = 60 degrees
Answer: 60
Step-by-step explanation:
C = -11
A = -13
V = 9
E = -9
If you are adding them: -24
Hope this helps!
The borrower owes $14,760.82 at the end of 8 years
What is compounding interest?
Compounding interest means that earlier interest would earn more interest in the future alongside the loan principal.
Note that in this case the loan continues to accumulate interest because there no repayments, in other words, the loan balance after 8 years, which comprises of the principal and interest for 8 years can be computed using the future value formula of a single cash flow(the single cash flow is the principal) as shown thus:
FV=PV*(1+r/n)^(n*t)
FV=loan balance after 8 years=unknown
PV=loan amount=$5,000
r=annual interest=14%
n=number of times in a year that interest is compounded=2(twice a year)
t=loan period=8 years
FV=$5000*(1+14%/2)^(2*8)
FV=$5000*(1.07)^16
FV=$5000*2.95216374856541
FV=loan balance after 8 years=$14,760.82
Find out more about semiannual compounding on:brainly.com/question/7219541.
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Answer:
31
Step-by-step explanation:
The correct answer is 31.
Since 7 is greater than 5, you add a 1 in replace of the 0 to get 31.
