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Yuri [45]
3 years ago
12

Binomial probability distributions depend on the number of trials n of a binomial experiment and the probability of success p on

each trial. Under what conditions is it appropriate to use a normal approximation to the binomial? (Select all that apply.)nq > 10 np > 5 p > 0.5 np > 10 p < 0.5 nq > 5What is the probability of "12" or fewer successes? Use the normal approximation of the binomial distribution to answer this question. (Round your answer to four decimal places.)

Mathematics
1 answer:
FinnZ [79.3K]3 years ago
8 0

The question is incomplete! Complete question along with answers and step by step explanation is provided below.

Question:

(a) Binomial probability distributions depend on the number of trials n of a binomial experiment and the probability of success p on each trial. Under what conditions is it appropriate to use a normal approximation to the binomial? (Select all that apply.)

nq > 10

np > 5

p > 0.5

np > 10

p < 0.5

nq > 5

(b) What is the probability of "12" or fewer successes for a binomial experiment with 20 trials. The probability of success on a single trial is 0.50. Use the normal approximation of the binomial distribution to answer this question. (Round your answer to four decimal places.)

Answer:

(a) The correct options are np > 5 and nq > 5

(b) P(x ≤ 12) = 0.8133

Step-by-step explanation:

Please refer to the attached images for explanation, I am unable to type in text editor due to some technical error!

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You roll 2 dice. If the sum of the dice is: 2, 3, 4 you win $20. If the sum is 5, 6, 7, 8 you win $10. If the sum is 9, 10, 11 y
Elis [28]

Answer:

1) The expected value of the "winnings" is $(-0.97\overline 2)

2) The variance for the "winnings" is $0.57966

3) The standard deviation for the "winnings" is$0.761354

4) The game is not a fair game because one is expected to lose $0.97\overline 2

Step-by-step explanation:

1) The probability of having a sum of 2 = 1/6×1/6 = 1/36

The probability of having a sum of 3 = 1/6×1/6 = 1/36

The probability of having a sum of 4 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6  = 1/18

The probability of having a sum of 5 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 = 1/18

The probability of having a sum of 6 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 = 1/12

The probability of having a sum of 7 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 = 1/12

The probability of having a sum of 8 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 = 1/12

The probability of having a sum of 9 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6  = 1/18

The probability of having a sum of 10 = 1/6×1/6 + 1/6×1/6 = 1/18

The probability of having a sum of 11 = 1/6×1/6  = 1/36

The probability of having a sum of 12 = 1/6×1/6  = 1/36

The values are;

For 2, we have 1/36 × (20 - 5) = 0.41\overline 6

For 3, we have 1/36 × (20 - 5) = 0.41\overline 6

For 4, we have 1/18 × (20 - 5) = 0.8\overline 3

For 5, we have 1/18 ×  (10 - 5) = 0.2\overline 7

For 6, we have 1/12 × (10 - 5) = 0.41\overline 6

For 7, we have 1/12 × (10 - 5) = 0.41\overline 6

For 8, we have 1/12 × (10 - 5) = 0.41\overline 6

For 9, we have 1/18 × (-20 - 5) = -1.3\overline 8

For 10, we have 1/18 × (-20 - 5) = -1.3\overline 8

For 11, we have 1/36 × (-20 - 5) = -0.69\overline 4

For 12, we have 1/36 × (-25 - 5) = -0.69\overline 4

The expected value of the winnings is given as follows;

0.41\overline 6 + 0.41\overline 6 + 0.8\overline 3 + 0.8\overline 3 + 0.8\overline 3 + 0.41\overline 6 + 0.41\overline 6 + -1.3\overline 8 -1.3 - 0.69\overline 4 - 0.69\overline 4 = -0.97\overline 2

Therefore, the expected value = $-0.97\overline 2, which is one is expected to lose $0.97\overline 2

2) Using Microsoft Excel, we have;

The variance for the "winnings", σ² = $0.57966

3) The standard deviation for the "winnings" = √σ² = √(0.57966) ≈ $0.761354

4) The game is not a fair game because one is expected to lose $0.97\overline 2

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