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eimsori [14]
3 years ago
12

Wallen Corporation is considering eliminating a department that has an annual contribution margin of $80,000 and $160,000 in ann

ual fixed costs. Of the fixed costs, $90,000 cannot be avoided. The annual financial advantage (disadvantage) for the company of eliminating this department would be:
Business
1 answer:
Svetradugi [14.3K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

-$10,000

Explanation:

For computing the annual financial advantage or disadvantage, we have to determine the net income or loss  in both cases which are shown below:

In the first case

Net income or loss = Annual contribution margin - annual fixed cost

                   = $80,000 - $160,000

                   = $80,000

And, the net income with fixed cost is $90,000

So, the financial disadvantage would be

= $80,000 - 90,000

= -$10,000

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Which type of account typically has very high liquidity, low or no interest, and low minimum balance?
Vsevolod [243]
Checking account is the right answer
4 0
3 years ago
A monetarist would argue that a. prices are inflexible. b. wages are inflexible. c. changes in M in the short run can cause Real
DerKrebs [107]

Answer:

The correct answer is the option C: changes in M in the short run can cause Real GDP to fall.

Explanation:

To begin with, the monetarist economists are the one that support the idea of not having any intervention from the government regarding the economy and moreover they are the ones whose ideology focus mainly in the money, as it name indicates. Therefore that when the government decides in the short run to increase the amount of the money supply then the monetarists argue that the action done by them will cause the Real GDP to fall because of the high inflation that it will cause the increase of the money supply and consequently low demand, etc.

8 0
3 years ago
A currency trader observes the following quotes in the spot market: 1 U.S. dollar = 122 Japanese yen 1 British pound = 2.25 Swis
andrezito [222]

Answer:

88.38

Explanation:

Given;

1 U.S. dollar = 122 Japanese yen

1 British pound = 2.25 Swiss francs

1 British pound = 1.63 U.S. dollars

Therefore,

2.25 Swiss francs = 1.63 U.S. dollars

1 US. dollar = 2.25/1.63 Swiss francs

1 US dollar = 1.38 Swiss francs

since

1 U.S. dollar = 122 Japanese yen then,

1.38 Swiss francs = 122 Japanese yen

1 Swiss francs = 122/1.38 Japanese yen

1 Swiss francs  = 88.38 Japanese yen

1 Swiss franc can be used to purchase 88.38 Japanese yen.

8 0
3 years ago
The measure of systematic risk is called ________.
Lorico [155]

The measure of systematic risk is called <u>beta</u>.

The answer is option c.

Beta is the same old CAPM measure of systematic hazard. It gauges the tendency of the go back of protection to transport in parallel with the return of the inventory market as an entire. One manner to consider beta is as a gauge of a protection's volatility relative to the marketplace's volatility.

Systematic risk is a part of the total risk this is caused by factors beyond the control of a specific company or individual. Systematic risk is caused by elements that are outside to the organization. All investments or securities are situations to systematic hazard and, therefore, it's far a non-diversifiable chance.

To measure a monetary firm's contribution to systemic hazard includes measuring the company's expected capital shortfall in a crisis. This right away offers the regulator with a quantifiable degree of the relative significance of a firm's contribution to ordinary systemic chance.

Learn more about organization here: brainly.com/question/24448358

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
Lowden Company has an overhead application rate of 165% and allocates overhead based on direct material cost. During the current
AlekseyPX

Answer:

The amount of overhead that Lowden should be recorded in the current period = 165% * $74,000  =   $122,100

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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