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malfutka [58]
3 years ago
7

Which statement is true?

Mathematics
2 answers:
diamong [38]3 years ago
7 0

3 is correct , base is never equal to 1 cause all of solves of logarithm will be 0

guajiro [1.7K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer with explanation:

Consider a Logarithmic Function

  y=\log_{a} b\\\\y=\frac{\log b}{\log a}\\\\ \text{if, a=1,then}\\\\y=\frac{\log b}{\log 1}\\\\y=\frac{\log b}{0}

which is not defined.

Also,⇒ a∈(0,∞)≠1.

b> 0, that is, b∈(0,∞)

Option C:

 is not a logarithmic function because the base is equal to 1.

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A recipe for orange water says, “Mix 3 teaspoons of yellow water with 1 teaspoon red water.” For this recipe, we might say: “The
Hunter-Best [27]

Well, we know that 3:1 is one batch of orange water. We also know that there are 2 things to focus on.

1. Must write ratio for 2 batches of the recipe.

2. Must write ratio for 4 batches of the recipe.

To make this equation simple, double the ratio to find 2 batches because all it means is 2x more water.

3:1

x2

6:2

So, the ratio would be 6:2 to make 2 batches.

To make it easier again, we just multiply the ratio of 2 batches by 2 which would find the ratio for 4 batches.

6:2

x2

12:4

So that means, that it is 6:2 for 2 batches, and 12:4 for four batches.

5 0
3 years ago
(-38) (378)(-836)=<br> Positive Answer<br> Negative Answer
Natalija [7]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  +12,008,304

Step-by-step explanation:

Your calculator can tell you the product is positive. (Any product involving an even number of minus signs will be positive.)

  (-38)(378)(-836) = (38)(378)(836) = 12,008,304 . . . a positive answer

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following definitions describe functions from the domain to the codomain given? Which functions are one-to-one? Whi
LenKa [72]

Answer:

  • a) f is a function. It is not 1-1, it is not onto.
  • b) g is not a function.
  • c) h is a function. It is not 1-1, it is onto.
  • f) h is a function. It is a bijection, and h^-1(x,y)=(y-1,x-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

a)  For all x∈ℤ, the number f(x)=x²+1 exists and is unique because f(x) is defined using the operations addition (+) and multiplication (·) on ℤ. Then f is a function. f is not one-to-one: consider -1,1∈ℤ. -1≠1 but f(-1)=f(1)=2- Because two different elements in the domain have the same image under f, f is not 1-1. f is not onto: x²≥0 for all x∈ℤ then f(x)=x²+1≥1>0 for all x∈ℤ. Then 0∈ℕ but for all x∈ℤ f(x)≠0, which means that one element of the codomain doen't have a preimage, so f is not onto.

b) 0∈ℕ, so 0 is an element of the domain of g, but g(0)=1/0 is undefined, therefore g is not a function.

c) Let (z,n)∈ℤ x ℕ. The number h(z,n)=z·1/(n+1) is unique and it's always defined because n+1>0, then h is a function. h is not 1-1: consider the ordered pairs (1,2), (2,5). They are different elements of the domain, but h(2,5)=2/6=1/3=h(1,2). h is onto: any rational number q∈ℚ can be written as q=a/b for some integer a and positive integer b. Then (a,b-1)∈ ℤ x ℕ and h(a,b-1)=a/b=q.

f) For all (x,y)∈ℝ², the pair h(x,y)=(y+1,x+1) is defined and is unique, because the definition of y+1 and x+1 uses the addition operation on ℝ. f is 1-1; suppose that (x,y),(u,v)∈ℝ² are elements of the domain such that h(x,y)=h(u,v). Then (y+1,x+1)=(v+1,u+1), so by equality of ordered pairs y+1=v+1 and x+1=u+1. Thus x=u and y=x, therefore (x,y)=(u,v). f is onto; let (a,b)∈ℝ² be an element of the codomain. Then (b-1,a-1)∈ℝ² is an element of the domain an h(b-1,a-1)=(a-1+1,b-1+1)=(a,b). Because h is 1-1 and onto, then h is a bijection so h has a inverse h^-1 such that for all (x,y)∈ℝ² h(h^-1(x,y))=(x,y) and h^-1(h^(x,y))=(x,y). The previous proof of the surjectivity of h (h onto) suggests that we define h^-1(x,y)=(y-1,x-1). This is the inverse, because h(h^-1(x,y))=h(y-1,x-1)=(x,y) and h^-1(h^(x,y))=h^-1(y+1,x+1)=(x,y).

5 0
2 years ago
NEED HELP ASAP!!! Angles of Elevation and Despression! Need to find y!
Soloha48 [4]

Answer:

Hey there!

We have cosine 61=y/500

cosine 61(500)=242.4 ft.

Let me know if this helps :)

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that each coupon obtained is, independently of what has been previously obtained, equally likely to be any of m differen
Triss [41]

ANSWER:

E[X] ≈ m ln m

STEP-BY-STEP EXPLANATION:

Hint: Let X be the number needed. It is useful to represent X by

       m      

X =  ∑  Xi

      i=1

where each Xi  is a geometric random variable

Solution: Assume that there is a sufficiently large number of coupons such that removing a finite number of them does not change the probability that a coupon of a given type is draw. Let X be the number of coupons picked

       m      

X =  ∑  Xi

      i=1

where Xi is the number of coupons picked between drawing the (i − 1)th coupon type and drawing i th coupon type. It should be clear that X1 = 1. Also, for each i:

Xi ∼ geometric \frac{m - i + 1}{m} P r{Xi = n} =(\frac{i-1}{m}) ^{n-1} \frac{m - i + 1}{m}

Such a random variable has expectation:

E [Xi ] =\frac{1}{\frac{m- i + 1}{m}  } = \frac{m}{m-i + 1}

Next we use the fact that the expectation of a sum is the sum of the expectation, thus:

                m           m             m                    m

E[X] = E    ∑  Xi  =   ∑ E   Xi  = ∑  \frac{m}{m-i + 1}  = m ∑ \frac{1}{i} = mHm

               i=1           i=1             i=1                   i=1

In the case of large m this takes on the limit:

E[X] ≈ m ln m

4 0
2 years ago
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