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Mumz [18]
3 years ago
15

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between an acute and obtuse angle? An acute angle has the same measure as a

n obtuse angle. An acute angle has a greater measure than an obtuse angle. An acute angle has a smaller measure than an obtuse angle. An acute angle and an obtuse angle add together to make a right angle.
Mathematics
2 answers:
SSSSS [86.1K]3 years ago
8 0
An acute angle has a smaller measure than an obtuse angle

Arturiano [62]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: C) An acute angle has a smaller measure than an obtuse angle.

Step-by-step explanation: An obtuse angle is more than 90deg but less than 180deg. An acute angle is an angle smaller than a right angle. The range of an acute angle is between 0 and 90 degrees. So the correct answer is the corresponding to optin C: An acute angle has a smaller measure than an obtuse angle (if we add together an obtuse and an acute angle it will always be more than 90deg).

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Is this correct??<br>I don't know
Alexandra [31]
In my opinion, ur right
4 0
3 years ago
What is 15 times 0.85?
Fofino [41]

Answer:

12.75

Step-by-step explanation:

You multiply 15.00 into 0.85

7 0
3 years ago
Select all the exspressions that are all equivalent to 20 percent of 150
Dmitriy789 [7]

<em>Note: It seems you may have unintentionally missed adding the answer choices. Thus, I am solving your question in general to give you the idea of how the percentage works, which anyways would solve your query.</em>

<em></em>

Answer:

Please check the explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that we have to determine the expressions which are equivalent to 20 percent of 150.

First, we need to determine what actually 20 percent of 150 really brings.

i.e

20% of 150 = 20/100 × 150

                   = 30

Thus,

20% of 150 = 30

Therefore, any expression that is equivalent to 30 will be included in the answer to this question.

4 0
3 years ago
When creating vases for the craft fair, Thomas used the proportion 3 pounds of clay is to 8 vases as 9 pounds of clay is to 24 v
Elodia [21]

Answer:

Answer:

4/24

Step-by-step explanation:

Because 1/6 is 4/24 simplified.

To prove this, all you have to do is try simplifying 4/24 yourself. To do that, we are going to use 4 to divide both the numerator and the denominator because 4 is a common factor of 4 and 24.

(To simplify a fraction, you divide both the numerator and denominator by a common factor)

So 4 divided by 4 is 1, and 24 divided by 4 is 6

1/6

99% sure im right ;)

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help me out with this equation! <br> i will mark you as brainliest
BigorU [14]
<h3>Answer:  -19, -15, -9, -1, 9   (choice A)</h3>

===================================================

Explanation:

If we plug in x = -2, then we get,

y = x^2 + 7x - 9

y = (-2)^2 + 7(-2) - 9

y = 4 - 14 - 9

y = -10 - 9

y = -19

So x = -2 leads to y = -19. The answer is between A and D.

---------

If you repeat those steps for x = -1, then you should get y = -15

Then x = 0 leads to y = -9

x = 1 leads to y = -1

Finally, x = 2 leads to y = 9

The outputs we get are: -19, -15, -9, -1, 9 which is choice A

Choice D is fairly close, but we won't have a second copy of -15, and  we don't have an output of -19.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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