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xeze [42]
3 years ago
13

California Adventures issues 5,000 shares of 8%, $100 par value preferred stock at the beginning of 2020. All remaining shares a

re common stock. The company was not able to pay dividends in 2020, but plans to pay dividends of $100,000 in 2021.
Business
1 answer:
never [62]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

See below.

Explanation:

Since the preferred stock is not cumulative only the current years' dividend is payable on these stocks.

Preferred stock dividend = (5000 * 100) * 0.08 = $40,000

Of the declared dividend of $100,000,

Preferred Dividend = $40,000

Ordinary share dividend = $60,000

If the shares were cumulative, the prior year dividends would also be payable form the declared dividends bringing the total preferred dividend to $80,000.

Hope that helps.

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Ophelia Inc. just learned that Patton Inc., one of its customers with an outstanding accounts receivable balance, filed for bank
wlad13 [49]

Answer:

Ophelia Inc.

Assuming that the company utilizes the allowance method, Ophelia should record a(n):

decrease in Accounts Receivable

Explanation:

This means that the accounts receivable will be credited while the allowance for doubtful accounts is debited to record the decreased value.  The Patton Inc. account may not be recovered fully.  However, the amount of the decrease depends on the amount that can be recovered from Patton.  Thereupon, the accounts receivable will first be credited with the cash recovered with the corresponding debit entry in the Cash account.

4 0
2 years ago
Suppose a bank enters a repurchase agreement in which it agrees to buy Treasury securities from a correspondent bank at a price
Cloud [144]

Answer:

Yield with 6-day maturity is 7.70%

Yield with 18-day maturity is 2.57%

Explanation:

The formula for yield on repurchase is given as:

y = ( PAR – P ) / P x (360 / t )

P=Purchase price

PAR=Repurchase price

t= number of days of the transaction

In first scenario,PAR is $39 million,P is $38.95 million and t=6

y=($39000000-38950000)/38950000*(360/6)

y=7.70%

In the second scenario,details remained the same except for t that is 18

y=($39000000-38950000)/38950000*(360/18)

y=2.57%

This implies the longer the maturity the lesser the yield since yield is computed on daily basis.

3 0
3 years ago
The more conservative a firm's management is, the higher its total debt to total capital ratio [measured as (Short-term debt Lon
PtichkaEL [24]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The conservative approach is that the firm has greater level of working capital investment than the competitor or industry average. So to fund the higher level of working capital the company has a set of policy and targets related to the level of debt level which means the company will not be willing to borrow further money if their borrowing exceeds the set limit or benchmark. They might use the equity instruments (Preferred stock or Common equity) to fund the higher level of working capital.

So their no absolute argument whether the denominator will increase or the nominator will increase in the Total debt to capital ratio. Hence the statement is false.

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following best describes the purpose of raising and lowering the
Alex787 [66]

Answer:

It is used by Fed to manage the economy by increasing or decreasing the amount of loans being made

Explanation:

The Fed decides on required reserve ratio for the banks and other financial institutions; t can lower or raise it. Reserve ratio is the portion of all the money that bank are required  to sets aside and hold onto; this means they are not allowed to lend that out to borrowers. This is a technique that is used to control the supply of money in the economy. By decreasing this ratio, banks will have more money to lend out and vice versa.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Limited focus of change is a major force for resistance to change that originates from an organizational source. It indicates th
Naya [18.7K]

Answer:I forgot

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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