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kondor19780726 [428]
3 years ago
10

2).- ¿Qué fecha de un año bisiesto marcará un

Mathematics
1 answer:
erma4kov [3.2K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

4 junio

Step-by-step explanation:

For a leap year, February has 29 days

January=31 days

February=29 days

March=31 days

April=30 days

May=31 days

31+29+30+31=152 days

156-152=4 days to mean, we need 4 days to reach 156 days and the 4 days will be in June hence 4 junio

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stealth61 [152]
To answer this question I tried to find a common multiple of 21 and 35 which I found to be 105. As they are in minutes 105 is 1 hour and 45 minutes; after this I found 1 hour 45 munutes after 7:30, I then got 9:15
9:15 is my answer
3 0
3 years ago
WHAT IS THE MODE<br><br><br> 27 17 9 12 18 21 9 14 18 23 15 7 20 18 17 12
balu736 [363]

18 because it is most often.

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Please solve #13-14
Serga [27]

Answer:

XZ = 44

KQ = 24

Step-by-step explanation:

XH is half of XZ, and XH is 22x so two times 22x will give you XZ.

XH times two equation - 2(22x)

XZ equation - 43x + 1

Set them equal

2(22x) = 43x + 1

44x = 43x + 1

x = 1

Put x in equation XZ

43(1) + 1 = 44

5 0
3 years ago
The top 1/8 of the runners advance to the fi nals for the track and field competit ion. What is the decimal value of the number?
Ivan

Answer:

no

Step-by-step explanation:


8 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
4 years ago
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