Answer:
The correct answer is: non-bank public increases its holdings of currency outside the banking system.
Explanation:
A currency drain refers to the situation where there is an increase in currency held outside the banking system. When the public holds more money outside the banking system, it reduces the total reserves of the banks. The excess reserves get reduced as well.
The currency gets drained from the banking system, so banks can create less money. This causes a reduction in the money supply.
Select (A RANGE) to apply formatting to several cells at the same time.
-I hope this helps!!
Answer:
The book value of the machine at the end of year 2 is $35,000
Explanation:
Straight line method depreciates the asset on its useful life after deducting salvage value from the cost of the asset.
Depreciation per year = ( Cost of Machine - Residual Value ) / Useful life
Depreciation per year = ( $42,000 - $7,000 ) / 10 years
Depreciation per year = $3,500 per year
Book value of machine at the end of year 2 = $42,000 - ( $3,500 x 2 )
Book value of machine at the end of year 2 = $42,000 - $7,000
Book value of machine at the end of year 2 = $35,000
Microhard has issued a bond with the following characteristics: Par: $1,000 Time to maturity: 21 years Coupon rate: 9 percent Semiannual payments Calculate the price of this bond if the YTM is 6% (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.):
Answer:
Price of bond = $982.63
Explanation:
<em>The value of the bond is the present value (PV) of the future cash receipts expected from the bond. The value is equal to present values of interest payment plus the redemption value (RV).
</em>
Value of Bond = PV of interest + PV of RV
The value of bond for Microhard can be worked out as follows:
Step 1
PV of interest payments
Semi annul interest payment
= 9% × 1000 × 1/2
= 45
Semi-annual yield = 6%/2 = 3
% per six months
Total period to maturity (in months)
= (2 × 21) = 42 periods
PV of interest =
45 × (1- (1+0.03)^(-21)/0.03)= 693.6
Step 2
PV of Redemption Value
= 1000 × (1.03)^(-21×2)
=288.95
Price of bond
= 693.6 + 288.95
=982.63
Price of bond = $982.63
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation:
Cash flow from Operating Activities:
= Net income + (Beginning Accounts receivable - Ending Accounts receivable) + (Ending Accounts payable - Beginning Accounts payable)
= $45,000 + ($23,000 - $22,000) + ($28,000 - $26,000)
= $45,000 + $1,000 + $2,000
= $48,000
Therefore, Bird Brain's cash flows from operating activities would be $48,000.
