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Svetllana [295]
3 years ago
11

Evaluate the function for f (2) = x^3 - 2 A.4 B.6 C.8 D.10

Mathematics
2 answers:
sveticcg [70]3 years ago
6 0
Letter A which is 4 is your answer
ElenaW [278]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

A. 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!

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Someone, please! lend me a hand I'm confused
bija089 [108]
I believe the answer is B.
7 0
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the circumference of a circular painting is 40.82 ft. what is the radius of the painting? use 3.14 do not round
diamong [38]
Your answer would be about 20.41
7 0
3 years ago
The sum of two numbers is 19 . When the second number is subtracted from the first​ number, the difference is 17 . Find the two
zhenek [66]

Answer:

19 and 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x represent the first number and y represents second number

x + y = 19

x - y = 17 add two equations up

2x = 36 divide both sides by 2

x = 19 and since the difference is 17 the other number is 2

4 0
2 years ago
Given a standard deck of 52 cards, 3 cards are dealt without replacement. Using this situation, answer the questions below.<b
kherson [118]
Given that <span>3 cards are dealt without replacement in a </span><span>standard deck of 52 cards.

Part A:

There are 4 queens in a standard deck of 52 card, thus the probability that the first card is a queen is given by 4 / 52 = 1 / 13.

Since, the first card is not replaced, thus there are 3 queens remaining and 51 ards remaining in total, thus the probability that the second card is a queen is given</span> by 3 / 51 = 1 / 17

Similarly the probability that the third card is a queen is given by 2 / 50 = 1 / 25.

Therefore, the probability that <span>all three cards are queens is given by

\frac{1}{13} \times \frac{1}{17} \times \frac{1}{25} = \frac{1}{5525}



Part B:

Yes the probability of drawing a queen of heart is independent of the probability of drawing a queen of diamonds because they are separate cards and drawing one of the cards does not in any way affect the chance of drawing the other card.



Part C:

Given that the first card is a queen, then there are 3 queens remaining out of 51 cards remaining, thus the number of cards that are not queen is 51 - 3 = 48 cards.

Therefore, </span>if the first card is a queen, the probability that the second card will not be a queen is given by 48 / 51 = 16 / 17



Part D:

<span>Given that the first two card are queens, then there are 2 queens remaining out of 50 cards remaining.

Therefore, </span>if two of the three cards are queens ,<span>the probability that you will be dealt three queens</span> is given by 2 / 50 = 1 / 25 = 0.04



Part E:

<span>Given that the first two card are queens, then there are 2 queens remaining out of 50 cards remaining, thus the number of cards that are not queen is 50 - 2 = 48 cards.

Therefore, </span>if two of the three cards are queens ,the probability that the other card is not a queen is given by 48 / 50 = 24 / 25 = 0.96
8 0
3 years ago
Help!! I’ll give brainlist !
iren [92.7K]
Divide each one out to see which is cheaper.  4.39/12 = .37 cents per pint while 2.89/8 = .36 cents per pint.  These are cost per unit problems.The second choice is the cheaper of 2 by a cent. 
4 0
3 years ago
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