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3 years ago

One drawback of mailed marketing survey is

Business

1 answer:

Anna [14]3 years ago

7 0

The correct answer is C. Longer response times, sometimes six to eight weeks

Explanation:

Mailed Marketing survey is a method for gathering information related to market research or client satisfaction. This method involves sending surveys through email rather than directly asking people. This method has some advantages such as low-costs and convenience for the respondent; however, there are also com disadvantages or drawbacks this includes the fact that people might not respond and that the process is long and might take multiple weeks considering it is necessary to send the surveys, then give time for respondents to answer and then send them back. Thus, one drawback of mailed marketing survey is "Longer response times, sometimes six to eight weeks".

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Your neighbor Bob has two annuities. The first annuity will pay him $10,000 per month for the next 10 years. The second annuity

german

Answer:

$1,643,344.308

Explanation:

These are Ordinary annuities because if it is not mentioned that the payments are made at the beginning of the year which is the case for Annuity Due.

You can use a financial calculator to find the Present value of these two ordinary annuities.

PV of Annuity 1 from (yr1-yr10)

Recurring payment; PMT = 10,000

Total duration ; N = 10 *12 = 120 months

Monthly interest rate in this case ; I/Y = 6%/12 = 0.50%

Future value ; FV = 0 (use 0 if annuity variable is not given )

then CPT PV= $900,734.533

PV of Annuity 1 from (yr11-yr20)

This will happen in 2 steps sice it is a forward-starting annuity;

Recurring payment; PMT = 15,000

Total duration ; N = 10 *12 = 120 months

Monthly interest rate in this case ; I/Y = 6%/12 = 0.50%

Future value ; FV = 0 (use 0 if annuity variable is not given )

then CPT PV( at t=10)= $1,351,101.80

Next find the PV of $1,351,101.80 at t=0;

$1,351,101.80 /(1.005^120) = $742,609.7754

Next, find the sum of these two PVs to find the answer;

=$900,734.533 + $742,609.7754

PV = $1,643,344.308

6 0

3 years ago

Look at the tables below, which show, respectively, the willingness to pay and willingness to accept of buyers and sellers of in

Anastaziya [24]

Answer:

(a) The equilibrium quantity is Q* = 6 (b) The quantity supplied by private sellers is Q* = 0 (c) The new new equilibrium price is $9, the new equilibrium quantity is = 5 bags, and the bags were oranges were over produced is Q* = 1

Explanation:

Solution

(a) When the equilibrium price is at $8, the the quantity of equilibrium is stated as:

From the data given, when the price at equilibrium is $8, then the six consumers namely, bob, barb, bill, brat, Brent, Betty were all willingly to pay much more than the equilibrium price and the 6 producers namely, Carlos, Courtney, chuck, Cindy, Craig, chad accepted, because the price at equilibrium is greater than the minimum accepted price.

So,

The equilibrium price is Q* = 6

(b) If all the buyers are free riders, then the maximum willingness of the price of buyers is $0, because the willingness of the buyer's is lesser than the accepted minimum price of the sellers, for this producers will not be willingly to produce, thus the supplied quantity by private sellers is 0

Hence,

Q* = 0

So,

The new price of equilibrium is = $9

At the new equilibrium price $9 where 5 consumer and producer were willing and accepting to pay more than the equilibrium price

So,

The new equilibrium quantity is Q* = 5 bags

Now,

If the new equilibrium quantity of 5 bags is an optimal quantity,

Then,

(6-5) which results to 1 bag were overproduced.

Therefore,

Q* = 1

5 0

3 years ago

__ is NOT considered a high risk investment.

hram777 [196]

B or D I believe I remember the question but it’s one of those 2

3 0

3 years ago

Everly Corporation acquires a coal mine at a cost of $400,000. Intangible development costs total $100,000. After extraction has

Anni [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Inventory A/c Dr $73,500

To Accumulated depletion A/c $73,500

(Being the depletion is recorded)

The computation is shown below

First we have to compute the depletion per ton which is shown below:

= (Acquired cost of coal mine + Intangible development costs + fair value of the obligation - Sale value) ÷ (Number of estimated tons of coal extracted)

= ($400,000 + $100,000 + $80,000 - $160,000) ÷ (4,000 tons)

= $105

Now if 700 are extracted in first year, so the depletion would be

= 700 × $105

= $73,500

5 0

3 years ago

Your firm has just issued five-year floating-rate notes indexed to six-month U.S. dollar LIBOR plus 1/4 percent. What is the amo

andre [41]

Answer:

The first coupon payment is 37.25 dollars.

Explanation:

This problem require us to calculate the first coupon payment that the firm will make. This can be easily calculated by multiplying the applicable interest rate with face value of notes issued.

The applicable interest rate is six month libor + 0.25% (1/4)

First coupon payment = (7.45%)'/2 * 1000 = 37.25 dollars

'7.25% + 0.25% = 7,45%

5 0

3 years ago