Answer:
B) The same as the momentum change of the heavier fragment.
Explanation:
Since the initial momentum of the system is zero, we have
0 = p + p' where p = momentum of lighter fragment = mv where m = mass of lighter fragment, v = velocity of lighter fragment, and p' = momentum of heavier fragment = m'v' where m = mass of heavier fragment = 25m and v = velocity of heavier fragment.
0 = p + p'
p = -p'
Since the initial momentum of each fragment is zero, the momentum change of lighter fragment Δp = final momentum - initial momentum = p - 0 = p
The momentum change of heavier fragment Δp' = final momentum - initial momentum = p' - 0 = p' - 0 = p'
Since p = -p' and Δp = p and Δp' = -p = p ⇒ Δp = Δp'
<u>So, the magnitude of the momentum change of the lighter fragment is the same as that of the heavier fragment. </u>
So, option B is the answer
Answer: 0.45
Explanation:
First note that the body that causes the body to move is its moving force (Fm) which is 9.0N
Since the mass of the body is 2.0kg, the weight will be;
W= mg = 2×10
W= 20N
For static body, the frictional force (Ff) acting on the body is equal to the moving force (Fm) since both forces acts along the horizontal on the body.
Ff = Fm = 9.0N
The normal reaction (R) on the body will also be equal to its weight(W) since weight acts downwards and the reaction acts in the opposite direction (upwards).
R = W = 20N
Ff = nR taking 'n' as coefficient of static friction between the drawer and the cabinet.
9.0 = 20n
n = 9/20
n = 0.45
Answer:
i. The velocity ratio of the plane is 4.
ii. The mechanical advantage of the plane is 3.
Explanation:
i. The velocity ratio (VR) of an inclined plane is ratio of its length to the height. It is given as;
VR = 
= 
Given: l = 12 m, L = 600 N, E = 200 N, h = 3 m.
So that,
VR = 
= 4
The velocity ratio of the plane is 4.
ii. Mechanical advantage (MA) expresses the relationship between the load overcome to effort applied.
MA = 
= 
= 
= 3
The mechanical advantage of the plane is 3.
Therefore, the velocity ratio of the inclined plane is 4, and its mechanical advantage is 3.
Answer:
20 m
Explanation:
We'll begin by calculating the kinetic energy of the mass. This can be obtained as follow:
Mass (m) = 10 kg
Velocity (v) = 20 m/s
Kinetic energy (KE) =?
KE = ½mv²
KE = ½ × 10 × 20²
KE = 5 × 400
KE = 2000 J
Finally, we shall the height to which the mass must be located in order to have potential energy that is the same as the kinetic energy. This can be obtained as follow:
Mass (m) = 10 kg
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 m/s²
Potential energy (PE) = Kinetic energy (KE) = 2000 J
Height (h) =..?
PE = mgh
2000 = 10 × 10 × h
2000 = 100 × h
Divide both side by 100
h = 2000 / 100
h = 20 m
Thus, the object must be located at a height of 20 m in order to have potential energy that is the same as the kinetic energy.
Answer:
One gram of pure gold would contain lots of gold atoms- A.
