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dalvyx [7]
2 years ago
8

Rozonda defines the diameter of a circle as a line segment passing through the center of the circle. Is Rozonda’s definition val

id?
Mathematics
2 answers:
larisa [96]2 years ago
6 0

Answer: Yes Rozonda's definition is valid

Step-by-step explanation:

denpristay [2]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Rozanda's definition is valid because the actual definiton of a diameter within a circle any straight line segment that passes through the center of the circle and whose endpoints lie on the circle. It can also be defined as the longest chord of the circle. In more modern usage, the length of a diameter is also called the diameter.

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4 1/2 divided by 2 3/8
Yuki888 [10]
First you make them mixed numbers:
9/2 ÷ 19/8
Then you flip the second fraction around
9/2 ÷ 8/19
Then you change ÷ to ×
9/2 × 8/19
And then multiply across!
72/38 = 1 34/38 = 1 17/19 (the final answer)
Hope this helps!
3 0
3 years ago
NEED HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Math problem! Please help!
Elanso [62]

Answer:

You are correct, it is C.

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
3 years ago
Caroline baked 3 dozen oatmeal raisin cookies for the bake sale at school this is 1/4 the number of dozens of cookies she baked
anyanavicka [17]
144 is how much cookies she baked
7 0
3 years ago
What is the constant of proportionality for m=32•g
lina2011 [118]

Answer:

∴ Constant of Proportionality is 32

Step-by-step explanation:

Here Given;

m=32\times g  (equation-1)

\frac{m}{g}=32  (equation-2) (divide with 'g' on both side)

We know,

The Constant of Proportionality equation is given;

y=k\times x  (equation-3)

Where 'k' is known as Constant of Proportionality.

Comparing equation-1 and equation-3;

y=m and x=g

Now equation-2 become;

k=\frac{y}{x}

Plug y=m and x=g in above equation;

\frac{m}{g}=k  (equation-4)

By comparing equation-2 and equation-4;

k=32

So Constant of Proportionality is 32

6 0
3 years ago
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