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german
2 years ago
12

Complete the explanation of the error.

Mathematics
1 answer:
uysha [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

cause if you multiply a negative twice it becomes a positive

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What is the value of a?
bearhunter [10]

Answer:

the second option : 5 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

the height (h) in such a right-angled triangle is based on the 2 segments of the baseline : 3 and a

h = 4

the formula is h = sqrt(a×b)

with a and b being the baseline segments.

so,

4 = sqrt(3×a)

16 = 3×a

a = 16/3 = 5 1/3

8 0
2 years ago
Determine whether the conjecture is true or false. Give a counterexample for any false conjecture.
AnnyKZ [126]

Answer:

The Answer is C. false; m =-2 or m=2

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because:

2*2=4 being 4+6=10 Making 2 true, but

-2*-2= 4 as well making it 4+6=10, Making -2 true as well.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the ratio 175 to 250 written in fraction in LOWEST TERMS?
Lana71 [14]
For 175 : 250 divide them both by 25 to get \frac{7}{10} < \frac{175}{250}
25 goes into 175 > 7 times > 25 into 250 is 10 times! > \frac{7}{10}
For the second one 16 : 40 just divide the top and bottom by 8 since 8 is a common factor of both which will give us \frac{2}{5}.
8 goes into 16, 2 times and 40, 5 times.
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following functions have a vertical asymptote for values of Ø such that cos Ø = 1?Select all that apply.
igomit [66]

Answer:

y=\cot \theta and y=\csc \theta

Step-by-step explanation:

Note that if \cos \theta=1, then \sin \theta=0.

Functions y=\cos \theta,\ \ y=\sin \theta do not have vertical asymptotes at all.

Vertical asymptotes have functions y=\tan \theta,\ \ y=\cot \theta,\ \ y=\sec \theta,\ \ y=\csc \theta.

Functions y=\tan \theta and y=\sec \theta have the same vertical asymptotes (when \cos \theta =0).

Functions y=\cot \theta and y=\csc \theta have the same vertical asymptotes (when \sin \theta =0). See attached diagram

3 0
3 years ago
Is (x+1)^2 equivalent to x^2 + 1? explain
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

No.

Step-by-step explanation:

(x+1)^2=(x+1)(x+1)=x^2+x+x+1=x^2+2x+1

This is different from x^2+1.

Thus, they are not equivalent.

4 0
2 years ago
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