1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Nana76 [90]
3 years ago
10

A new assessment tool does a good job of differentiating those who later will be depressed and those who will not be depressed,

and it produces results similar to those of other tools measuring depression. Therefore, the new assessment tool has good:
A. predictive validity.
B. face validity.
C. interjudge reliability.
D. test-retest reliability.
Business
1 answer:
Marina CMI [18]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A. predictive validity.

Explanation:

The tool has predictive-validity because it can assess, or predict, out of a sample, which subjects will be depressed in the future, and which subjects will not, producing similar results to other tools that also measure depression, something that gives it credibility.

You might be interested in
For each of the following items before adjustment, indicate the type of adjusting entry (prepaid expense, unearned revenue, accr
igor_vitrenko [27]

Answer:

See explanation

Explanation:

(a) Assets are understated - If we do not adjust accrued revenue, the assets are understated. For example - if we do not add any outstanding rent revenue, the assets will become understated.

(b) Liabilities are overstated - If we do not adjust unearned revenue, the liabilities are overstated. For example - if we do not deduct any expired unearned revenue, the liabilities will become overstated.

(c) Liabilities are understated - If we do not adjust accrued expense, the liabilities are understated. For example - if we do not add any outstanding rent expense, the liabilities will become understated.

(d) Expenses are understated - If we do not adjust accrued expense and prepaid expense, the expenses are understated. For example - if we do not add any outstanding rent expense and expired prepaid expenses, the expenses will become understated.

(e) Assets are overstated - If we do not adjust prepaid expense, the assets are overstated. For example - if we do not deduct any expired prepaid insurance, the assets will become overstated.

(f) Revenue is understated - If we do not adjust accrued revenue and unearned revenue, the revenue is understated. For example - if we do not add any outstanding rent revenue and expired unearned revenue, the revenue will become understated.

3 0
3 years ago
The following information pertains to the West Division of Burger Company:
GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

D) $4,550

Explanation:

Contribution margin = Net Sales - Total Variable cost

Net sales                             $6,000

Les: Variable costs:

Cost of merchandise sold  $1,000

Operating expenses          <u> $450  </u>

Contribution Margin            $4,550

All other costs are fixed cost which are not used in contribution margin calculation.

So the correct answer is D) $4,550.

3 0
3 years ago
The tendency or potential for plasticity is greatest in
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

The correct answer is : Infants from 1 to 2 years old.

Explanation:

According to the <em>Physical and Cognitive Development</em> theory, plasticity is the ability of the brain to overcome the functionality of injured parts. In this sense, preschoolers with brain language areas damaged are likely to take them up due to plasticity since plasticity is greater in infants from 1 to 2 years old.

5 0
3 years ago
The Traffic Court of King James County operates between the hours of 9AM and 1PM. Each morning, roughly at 9AM, 200 defendants s
patriot [66]

Answer:

Explanation:

Please check attachment for the solution to the question.

7 0
3 years ago
Required information Use the following information for the Exercises below. Skip to question [The following information applies
rosijanka [135]

Answer:

See

Explanation:

1. Break even point in units

= Fixed cost / Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit

Given that

Fixed cost = $600,000

Selling price per unit = $375

Variable cost per unit = $300

Break even point in units = $600,000 / ($375 - $300)

= $600,000 / $75

= 8,000 units

2. Break even in sales

= Fixed cost / Selling price unit - Variable cost per unit × Selling price per unit.

=[ $600,000 / ($375 - $300) ] × $375

= 8,000 × $375

= $3,000,000

6 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • What does the word "Friend" mean?
    5·2 answers
  • Jack rents rooms in his hotel for an average of $100 per night. The variable cost per rented room is $20, to cover maid service
    11·1 answer
  • Which of the following are not directly involved in the revenue cycle?
    14·1 answer
  • ABC Corporation was organized on Jan 1, 2020. The firm was authorized to issue 100,000 shares of $1 par common stock. During 202
    15·1 answer
  • MacKenzie Company sold $180 of merchandise to a customer who used a Regional Bank credit card. Regional Bank deducts a 4% servic
    8·2 answers
  • Collin was hired to work on data analytics, but once he started, the job quickly changed to project management. His supervisor n
    12·1 answer
  • If the value of imports for the current year is $3 billion and the value of exports is $8 billion, what effect will this have on
    13·1 answer
  • If you put off making a decision or performing a task, you are _______.a.Weightingb.Prioritizingc.Analyzingd.Procrastinating
    13·2 answers
  • Required information Skip to question [The following information applies to the questions displayed below.]
    8·1 answer
  • While in the short run an economic profit is more likely in an unregulated monopoly, ___________ may group competing resources a
    12·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!