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soldi70 [24.7K]
4 years ago
8

eal per capita GDP in Singapore in 1961 was about $450, but it doubled to about $900.00 by 1978. a. What was the average annual

economic growth rate in Singapore over the 17.00 years from 1961 to 1978
Business
1 answer:
Rus_ich [418]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer is 4.16%

Explanation:

Per capita GDP is the average income earned per person in a given country during a given period of time usually a year.

Per capita GDP in Singapore in 1961 equals $450

Per capita GDP in Singapore in 1978 equals $900

Difference between 1978 and 1961 is 17 years.

The formula for economic growth rate is;

[(End value/beginning value)^1)/17] - 1

[($900/$450)^1/17] - 1

1.041613 - 1

0.0416

Expressed as a percentage:

4.16%

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Are the signs of the coefficient estimates consistent with expectations? Explain.
kow [346]

The sign of each coefficient indicates the direction of the relationship between a predictor variable and the response variable. A positive sign indicates that as the predictor variable increases, the response variable also increases.

What do the estimates of the regression coefficients tell us?

You may determine if each independent variable and the dependent variable have a positive or negative association by looking at the sign of a regression coefficient. A positive coefficient means that the mean of the dependent variable tends to rise when the value of the independent variable rises.

What is predictor and response variable in regression?

The risk factors and confounders are referred to as the predictors, or explanatory or independent variables, whereas the outcome variable is also known as the response or dependent variable. The independent variables are designated by "X" while the dependent variable is denoted by "Y" in regression analysis.

Learn more about predictor and response variable in regression: brainly.com/question/14144041

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7 0
2 years ago
A firm sells a product in a perfectly competitive market. The marginal cost of the product at the current output level of 1,000
Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

The correct answer is "Continue producing 1000 units"

Explanation:

(In a perfect market)

When the price is = marginal cost. This means that if you increase your production, the benefits-profits will be the same as if you produce the same quantity.

When the Price > Marginal cost, means that consumers demand more for that good, so the producer has an incentive to increase the supply

When the Price < Marginal cost, means that production is higher than the consumer's demand.  This is an incentive to decrease the supply.

For this case, the best option is to continue producing the same quantity of units, 1000 units

8 0
3 years ago
In 2010, bad freezes destroyed a large portion of Florida's grapefruit crop. Explain what happened in the grapefruit market usin
lutik1710 [3]

Answer: Please refer to Explanation

Explanation:

The Grapefruit market will experience an acute shortage of grapefruits because the bad freeze destroyed most of the crop that was going to be supplied.

This shortage in supply will force the price up and therefore lead to a drop in Demand as a lot of people will decide that they can't spend the new amount.

This scenario would lead to an increase in the Equilibrium price because the supply curve will be forced to the left and the new intersect with the Supply curve will be higher. The Equilibrium Quantity will also reduce because of the shortage that is being experienced as a result of a large portion of the grapefruits being destroyed.

In the graph I attached, S2 refers to the supply curve AFTER the bad freezes. Notice how the price went up to P2 and the Quantity dropped to Q2.

If you need any clarification do comment. Cheers.

8 0
3 years ago
Currently, Warren Industries can sell 15-year​, ​$1,000​-par-value bonds paying annual interest at a 12​% coupon rate. Because c
Korolek [52]

Answer:

11.57% and 9.02%

Explanation:

For computing the before-tax and after- tax cost of debt we use the RATE formula i.e to be shown in the attachment below:

Given that,  

Present value = $1,050 - $20 = $1,030

Future value or Face value = $1,000  

PMT = 1,000 × 12% = $120

NPER = 15 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this,  

1. The pretax cost of debt is 11.57%

2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be

= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)

= 11.57% × ( 1 - 0.22)

= 9.02%

6 0
3 years ago
Since your first​ birthday, your grandparents have been depositing $ 1 comma 000 into a savings account on every one of your bir
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

The amount of money in my savings account will be closest​ to $29,213

Explanation:

A fix Payment for a specified period of time is called annuity. The Compounding of these payment on a specified rate is known as Future value of annuity. In this question $1,000 per year payment for 18 years at 6% interest rate is also an annuity.

We can calculate the amount of saving by calculating the future value of the given annuity.

Formula for Future value of annuity  is as follow

Future value of annuity = FV = P x ( [ 1 + r ]^n - 1 ) / r

Where

P = Annual payment = $1,000

r = rate of return = 6%

n = number of years = 18 years

Placing Value in the formula

As on the 18th payment no compounding interest income is accrued yet because grandparent made it now.

Future value of annuity = FV = $1,000 + 1,000 x ( [ 1 + 6% ]^18-1 - 1 ) / 6%

Future value of annuity = FV = $1,000 + 1,000 x ( [ 1 + 0.06 ]^17 - 1 ) / 0.06

Future value of annuity = FV = $29,213

3 0
3 years ago
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