Answer:
x - 99 ≤ -104 → 2nd line
x - 51 ≤ -43 → 1st line
150 + x ≤ 144 → 4th line
75 < 69 - x → 3rd line
Step-by-step explanation:
Ugh! Wow, this is going to be tedious, thanks alot, bro (jk, I got your back).
x - 99 ≤ -104
+ 99 + 99
x ≤ -5
There should be a line going from -5 to negative infinity (AKA the left) with a FILLED circle. So, the second one is correct.
x - 51 ≤ -43
+ 51 + 51
x ≤ 8
There should be an arrow with a FILLED circle going to negative infinity (AKA the left). So, the first one is correct.
I'm going to take a shortcut and notice that one of the lines has a filled circle while the other one has an empty circle. So the empty circle must relate to the question without a ≤ or ≥, but with a < or >. We see that 75 < 69 doesn't have ≤ or ≥ but a '<.' So this one must have the empty circle, which is on line 3. The last equation has to be on line 4.
Answer:
-3 Or 3 it could be any one of them
Step-by-step explanation:
-3 or 3
Rise/run so an
Answer:
See below
Step-by-step explanation:
Use the formulae directly
For a cone, with base radius = r and height = h, here are the related formula
(1)


(2)
(3)
Therefore directly plugging in the numbers in the above equations:
Note:
l = slant height in cm
SA = total surface area in sqcm
V = Volume in cubic cm
Figure(a)
r = 4, h = 8

Figure(b)
r = 7, h =15


Figure (c)
r = 5, l = 8

First, start of by saying what the probability of getting a 4 is, which is 1/6.
Now, this means the probability of not getting a 4 is 1-(1/6)=(5/6), since the total probability is 1.
After doing this, you should think about what it means to only get 4 on the last trial, the 4th trial. It means that the probabilities of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd trial were (5/6) each. The 4th trial had a probability of (1/6). So the probability would be calculated as following: (

=

. You can use a calculator or your computer to find out that the probability is 125/1296.
I hope this was helpful!
13,000.......................hope it helps!