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larisa [96]
2 years ago
12

Graphically, deadweight loss is shown by the: select one:

Mathematics
1 answer:
andreev551 [17]2 years ago
8 0
<span> Deadweight is a </span>loss<span> of economic efficiency. This loss occurs when equilibrium for a good or service is not achieved or is not achievable.
Graphically deadweight loss is shown with B. welfare loss triangle, called </span>Harberger's triangle. The Harberger's triangle <span>refers to the deadweight loss (as measured on a supply and demand graph) associated with government intervention in a perfect market.</span>
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Please help me with this homework show me how you get it and the answer
aivan3 [116]

Answer: 226.19 Done and Done

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2 years ago
A 30-year-old female purchased a 20-Year Endowment insurance policy at the age of 23. The face value of the policy was $78,250.
FrozenT [24]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Annual Premium of $2,957.85; 26 years and 10 days

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can you please help with both? :)​
QveST [7]

Answer: 1. 12 2. 120

Step-by-step explanation:

1. so basically 9/6=18/x

since they are similir the'd have the same ratio

sooo you just solve for x (multiply 6 by 18, and then divide by 9) and you get 12

2. same thing except you put 6/10=12/x, and solve it (multiply 10 by 12 and divide by 6) and u get 20

dats how i would do it but there are other ways too im sure :)

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8 0
2 years ago
What is the pattern in the values as the exponents increase? Powers of 2 Value 2 Superscript negative 5 StartFraction 1 Over 32
Tatiana [17]

Answer:

(D)Multiply the previous value by 2

Step-by-step explanation:

\left|\begin{array}{c|c}$Powers of 2&Value\\2^{-5}&\frac{1}{32}\\\\2^{-4}&\frac{1}{16}\\\\2^{-3}&\frac{1}{8}\\\\2^{-2}&\frac{1}{4}\\\\ 2^{-1}&\frac{1}{2}\\\\2^{0}&1\end{array}\right|

From the given table, we observe that the negative power of 2 reduces by 1 at each step.

2^{-5}X2=2^{-4}\\2^{-4}X2=2^{-3}\\2^{-3}X2=2^{-2}

Therefore, as the exponents increase, we multiply the previous value by 2 to obtain the next value.

The correct option is D.

6 0
3 years ago
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oksian1 [2.3K]

Answer:

40 inch

Step-by-step explanation:

1 inch=2.54cm

so 40 inch= 101.6 cm

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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