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gayaneshka [121]
3 years ago
10

Before a three-for-one stock split, the shares outstanding were 5,000 shares at $12 par.

Business
1 answer:
Artemon [7]3 years ago
6 0

After the three is to one split, for every one old share, there will be three new shares.

So number of new shares = 5000*3 = 15,000 shares

Since the number of shares increased three fold, the price per share will decrease by three fold.

So the price per share after split = 12/3 =$4

So, after the split, there will be 15,000 shares at $4 per share

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Packard Corporation reports the following information: Net cash provided by operating activities $335,000 Average current liabil
Molodets [167]

Answer:

$165,000

Explanation:

Free cash flow is the net cash cash flow available for the shareholders or for the reinvestment after paying all capital expenditure.

The Depreciation is already adjusted in the Cash Flow from operating activities.

Free Cash Flow = Cash Flow from operating activities - Dividend payment - Capital expenditure

Free Cash Flow = $335,000 - $60,000 - $110,000 = $165,000

Current and Long term liabilities has nothing to do in free cash flow calculations.

4 0
3 years ago
profit maximization pricing objective a. is a status quo oriented pricing objective. b. is a sales-oriented pricing objective. c
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

e. does not always lead to high prices.

Explanation:

Profit-maximization pricing means fixing prices so that total revenue is more as compared to total costs. This pricing strategy is used by a monopolist.

It is the short run or long run process by which the price and output level is determined by the firm that can give the maximum profit.

The price per item has been set higher than its total cost of production make to sure that the company makes a profit on each sale. As a result, the company makes a profit on every sale and to reduce risk and uncertainty factors in business operations.

Profit maximization pricing objective <u>does not always lead to high prices</u>.

5 0
3 years ago
Delta Corporation has a bond issue outstanding with an annual coupon rate of 7% and 20 years remaining until maturity. The par v
denpristay [2]

Answer:

Current yield is 10.3%

Explanation:

Coupon payment = 1000 x 7% = $70 annually

Number of periods = n = 20 years

Yield to maturity = 11% annually

Price of bond is the present value of future cash flows, to calculate Price of the bond use following formula

Price of the Bond = C x [ ( 1 - ( 1 + r )^-n ) / r ] + [ F / ( 1 + r )^n ]

Price of the Bond = $70 x [ ( 1 - ( 1 + 11% )^-20 ) / 11% ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1 + 11% )^20 ]

Price of the Bond = $557.43 + $124.03 = $681.46

Current yield is the ration of coupon payment to the price of the bond.

Current Yield = Coupon Payment / Price of Bond = $70 / 681.46 = 0.1027 = 10.3%

5 0
3 years ago
You are set to receive an annual payment of $12,100 per year for the next 17 years. Assume the interest rate is 7 percent. How m
uranmaximum [27]

Answer:

The difference in value is worth $8,269 more in money.

Explanation:

Case 1. Payments are made at the end of each year

So here, we will use the annuity formula for computing the present value of payments that we are receiving at the end of each year.

Here

Annual Cash flow is $12,100

Interest Rate "r" is 7%

And

Number of Payments "n" will be 17

Present Value = Cash flow * [1 - 1 / (1+r)^n] / r

By putting values, we have:

Present Value = $12,100 * [1 - 1 / (1 + 7%)^17] / 7%

Present Value = $12,100 * 9.763223

Present Value = $118,135

Now

Cash 2. Payments are arising at the start of each year

Just like the case above, we will use the annuity formula for computing the present value of payments that we are receiving at the start of each year. The first payment will be at worth the same because it is received in today's price.

So

Present Value = Cash flow     +       Cash flow * [1 - 1 / (1+r)^n] / r

So by putting values, that were used in case 1, we have:

Present Value = $12,100 + $12,100 * (1 - (1/1.07)^16) / 0.07

Present Value = $12,100 + $12,100 * 9.446649

Present Value = $126,404

Difference in Present Value = PV of Case 1      -    PV of Case 2

= $126,404 - $118,135 = $8,269

The difference in value is worth $8,269 more in money.

4 0
3 years ago
LO 2.1Explain how the income statement of a manufacturing company differs from the income statement of a merchandising company.
marshall27 [118]

Answer:

Revenue: The revenue of Manufacturing company comes from the sale of the products that they manufacture. However the merchandising company purchases goods from manufacturing companies and distribute them to make it easier for the customer to access the product and earn a profit on it which increases the cost of the product to end consumer. The contract between the manufacturing and merchandising company can be an agreement of principal and agent. In this case, the revenue for the merchandising company would be commission earned from manufacturing company. This commission paid to merchandising company will be cost to manufacturing company.

Cost of Sale: Now the raw material costs plus depreciation of production machinery plus direct labour plus variable Overhead cost plus if their is any commission paid for sale of finished goods will be the cost of sale for manufacturing  company. Whereas in the case of Merchandising company, the cost of sale will be only the cost of goods they sold in the year. The depreciation charge will be minor in merchandising company as they don't have any production machineries.

These the are major difference between manufacturing and merchandising company.

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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