Answer:
The company’s profit margin for the current year ended December 31 (rounded to the nearest decimal point) is 20%
Explanation:
Use the following formula to calculate the Profit Margin
Profit Margin = ![\frac{Net Income}{Net Sales} X 100](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7BNet%20Income%7D%7BNet%20Sales%7D%20X%20100)
Where
Net Income = $20,000
Net Sales = $100,000
Placing values in the formula
Profit Margin = ![\frac{20000}{100000} X 100](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B20000%7D%7B100000%7D%20X%20100)
Profit Margin = 0.2 x 100
Profit Margin = 20%
Answer:
$300
Explanation:
Given that s a health insurance program with co-payments of $10 per doctor visit.
Thus,
amount paid by insurance in 1 visit = $10
Amount paid by insurance in 6 visit = $10*6 = $60
Total bill charged by the doctor in 6 visit = 360
Amount paid by the consumer = Total bill charged by the doctor in 6 visit - Amount paid by consumer in 6 visit = $360 - $60 = $300
Since , consumer is the third party payer he pays $300 out of total $360 bill charged by the doctor.
In fraction ,portion of bill paid by the third party payer = 300/360 = 5/6
Thus, 5/6 portion of bill is paid by third party payer.
The impact of the vendor with the zero opening balance is to show that the account has been correctly set up.
<h3>What is the vendor opening balance?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to the amount of money that is in an account at the particular time that the account is newly opened.
The way that the vendor balance can be gotten is when the opening balances that are in a new year are carried forwards and the customers are done. In order to track this, the code that is to be used is F. 07.
The opening balance is what would have to be brought forward at the end of an accounting period and it is usually what the vendor would have to use as they try to keep a track of the cash flow that is in their account.
Hence we would say that the impact of the new vendor with this balance that is 0 is to help to determine how correct the set up of the account has been done.
Read more on opening balance here: brainly.com/question/26235574
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Answer:
Is referred to as accumulated depreciation.
Explanation:
Depreciation can be defined as the reduction of cost of a fixed asset systematically until the value of the asset becomes zero.
The Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) can be defined as a depreciation system that avails business owners or companies the ability and opportunity to recover or recoup the cost basis of physical assets that have experienced deterioration over a specific period of time.
In the United States of America, the Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System (MACRS) is used mainly for tax purposes because it gives room for faster depreciation of a physical asset in its first years or initial usage and reduces depreciation as it is being used over a long period of time.
Hence, the total amount of depreciation recorded against an asset over the entire time the asset has been owned is referred to as accumulated depreciation.
Answer:
TV (television)
Explanation:
Advertising frequency is defined as the number of time an advert is viewed by individuals once it come online.
The higher the number of times a user is exposed to an advert in a given time frame the higher the advertising frequency.
Normally it take exposure of 5 times and above for an advertisement to be effective.
Bill’s Surf Shop will have more advertising frequency on television because all categories of customers watch the television. Including children, teenagers, middle aged, and older people.
The other mediums will attract less people. Direct mail is only for those with emails, the web is for technologically savvy clients, and billboards only for those that view them in their location.
Television gives a larger audience.