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Genrish500 [490]
3 years ago
10

The percentage of people accessing the Internet increased

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alexxx [7]3 years ago
5 0

It’s is a because c FD did

You might be interested in
Whats the answer to -6 = 3/2z​
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

-6=3/2z

-12z=3

z=-4

7 0
3 years ago
Justin is saving money to buy a stereo. He has $25 saved in the bank right now. He earns $40 each week delivering newspapers.
mafiozo [28]

Answer:

y = 25 + 40x

Step-by-step explanation:

Let

y = the total amount of money Justin has

x = number of weeks

Amount Justin has in the bank = $25

Amount Justin earns per week = $40

Equation for how much money Justin has (including the amount he has in the bank) in x weeks

the total amount of money Justin has = Amount Justin has in the bank + (Amount Justin earns per week * number of weeks)

y = 25 + (40 * x)

y = 25 + 40x

The equation is

y = 25 + 40x

7 0
3 years ago
Please help with #6 need it very soon
gregori [183]

Answer:

If this is a proof then here is the answer.

Angle ABD is Congruent to Angle CBD = Given

Angle BDA is Congruent to Angle BDC = Given

Angle ABD is Congruent to Angle CBD = Definition of Angle Bisector

Line Segment BD is Congruent to Line Segment BD = Reflexive Property

Line Segment AB is Congruent to Linge Segment CB = Angle-Side-Angle or ASA

Step-by-step explanation:

Lucky for you, I just learned this also ;)


Since you are given your first two directions, put them down as GIVEN in the proof.

Next, Since ABD and CBD are congruent angles, you can assume that it is an angle bisector since angle bisectors always bisect equally.

Then, (This one is obvious), since Line Segment BD shares a side with itself, it is equal by the Reflexive Property (EX: AB is congruent to AB).

Finally, Since there is two angles with a congruent side in the middle, you can confirm that it is equal by Angle-Side-Angle.

Hope this helped!


5 0
3 years ago
Find two power series solutions of the given differential equation about the ordinary point x = 0. y'' + xy = 0
nalin [4]

Answer:

First we write y and its derivatives as power series:

y=∑n=0∞anxn⟹y′=∑n=1∞nanxn−1⟹y′′=∑n=2∞n(n−1)anxn−2

Next, plug into differential equation:

(x+2)y′′+xy′−y=0

(x+2)∑n=2∞n(n−1)anxn−2+x∑n=1∞nanxn−1−∑n=0∞anxn=0

x∑n=2∞n(n−1)anxn−2+2∑n=2∞n(n−1)anxn−2+x∑n=1∞nanxn−1−∑n=0∞anxn=0

Move constants inside of summations:

∑n=2∞x⋅n(n−1)anxn−2+∑n=2∞2⋅n(n−1)anxn−2+∑n=1∞x⋅nanxn−1−∑n=0∞anxn=0

∑n=2∞n(n−1)anxn−1+∑n=2∞2n(n−1)anxn−2+∑n=1∞nanxn−∑n=0∞anxn=0

Change limits so that the exponents for  x  are the same in each summation:

∑n=1∞(n+1)nan+1xn+∑n=0∞2(n+2)(n+1)an+2xn+∑n=1∞nanxn−∑n=0∞anxn=0

Pull out any terms from sums, so that each sum starts at same lower limit  (n=1)

∑n=1∞(n+1)nan+1xn+4a2+∑n=1∞2(n+2)(n+1)an+2xn+∑n=1∞nanxn−a0−∑n=1∞anxn=0

Combine all sums into a single sum:

4a2−a0+∑n=1∞(2(n+2)(n+1)an+2+(n+1)nan+1+(n−1)an)xn=0

Now we must set each coefficient, including constant term  =0 :

4a2−a0=0⟹4a2=a0

2(n+2)(n+1)an+2+(n+1)nan+1+(n−1)an=0

We would usually let  a0  and  a1  be arbitrary constants. Then all other constants can be expressed in terms of these two constants, giving us two linearly independent solutions. However, since  a0=4a2 , I’ll choose  a1  and  a2  as the two arbitrary constants. We can still express all other constants in terms of  a1  and/or  a2 .

an+2=−(n+1)nan+1+(n−1)an2(n+2)(n+1)

a3=−(2⋅1)a2+0a12(3⋅2)=−16a2=−13!a2

a4=−(3⋅2)a3+1a22(4⋅3)=0=04!a2

a5=−(4⋅3)a4+2a32(5⋅4)=15!a2

a6=−(5⋅4)a5+3a42(6⋅5)=−26!a2

We see a pattern emerging here:

an=(−1)(n+1)n−4n!a2

This can be proven by mathematical induction. In fact, this is true for all  n≥0 , except for  n=1 , since  a1  is an arbitrary constant independent of  a0  (and therefore independent of  a2 ).

Plugging back into original power series for  y , we get:

y=a0+a1x+a2x2+a3x3+a4x4+a5x5+⋯

y=4a2+a1x+a2x2−13!a2x3+04!a2x4+15!a2x5−⋯

y=a1x+a2(4+x2−13!x3+04!x4+15!x5−⋯)

Notice that the expression following constant  a2  is  =4+  a power series (starting at  n=2 ). However, if we had the appropriate  x -term, we would have a power series starting at  n=0 . Since the other independent solution is simply  y1=x,  then we can let  a1=c1−3c2,   a2=c2 , and we get:

y=(c1−3c2)x+c2(4+x2−13!x3+04!x4+15!x5−⋯)

y=c1x+c2(4−3x+x2−13!x3+04!x4+15!x5−⋯)

y=c1x+c2(−0−40!+0−31!x−2−42!x2+3−43!x3−4−44!x4+5−45!x5−⋯)

y=c1x+c2∑n=0∞(−1)n+1n−4n!xn

Learn more about constants here:

brainly.com/question/11443401

#SPJ4

6 0
1 year ago
Please help me with this question!
Harrizon [31]
6 pennies, 12 nickels, 8 dimes, 4 quarters = 30 coins

a) add the probability for drawing a dime and drawing a quarter together:
12/30 + 4/30 = 16/30 = 8/15
The probability is 8/15 or 53%

b) multiply the probability for drawing a penny and drawing a nickel:
6/30 x 12/30 = 72/900 = 2/25
The probability is 2/25 or 8%

c) multiply the probability for drawing quarters but take away one of the total coins and the amount of quarters each time:
4/30 x 3/29 x 2/28 = 24/24360 = 1/1015
The probability is 1/1015 or 0.099%
8 0
3 years ago
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