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3 years ago

What does it mean to simplify?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Arlecino [84]3 years ago

8 0

To make something smaller and easier

Goshia [24]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

To make something as small as possible or easier for something in particular.

Hope I helped!

You might be interested in

I will mark brainliest to whoever helps! :D

Arte-miy333 [17]

Answer:

-7/2y

Step-by-step explanation:

cancel out the Z's than youre left with -7/2y :}

8 0

3 years ago

What is the difference between these fractions?<br><br> +3/4−(+7/8)

Ket [755]

Answer:

1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

3/4 is 6/8 and 6/8 - 7/8 is 1/8

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Assume that the probability of a defective computer component is 0.02. Components arerandomly selected. Find the probability tha

solmaris [256]

Answer:

0.0177 = 1.77% probability that the first defect is caused by the seventh component tested.

The expected number of components tested before a defective component is found is 50, with a variance of 0.0208.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assume that the probability of a defective computer component is 0.02. Components are randomly selected. Find the probability that the first defect is caused by the seventh component tested.

First six not defective, each with 0.98 probability.

7th defective, with 0.02 probability. So

$p = (0.98)^6*0.02 = 0.0177$

0.0177 = 1.77% probability that the first defect is caused by the seventh component tested.

Find the expected number and variance of the number of components tested before a defective component is found.

Inverse binomial distribution, with $p = 0.02$

Expected number before 1 defective(n = 1). So

$E = \frac{n}{p} = \frac{1}{0.02} = 50$

Variance is:

$V = \frac{np}{(1-p)^2} = \frac{0.02}{(1-0.02)^2} = 0.0208$

The expected number of components tested before a defective component is found is 50, with a variance of 0.0208.

5 0

3 years ago

Lesson: 1.08Given this function: f(x) = 4 cos(TTX) + 1Find the following and be sure to show work for period, maximum, and minim

Ber [7]

The given function is

$f(x)=4\cos \text{(}\pi x)+1$

The general form of the cosine function is

$y=a\cos (bx+c)+d$

a is the amplitude

2pi/b is the period

c is the phase shift

d is the vertical shift

By comparing the two functions

a = 4

b = pi

c = 0

d = 1

Then its period is

$\begin{gathered} \text{Period}=\frac{2\pi}{\pi} \\ \text{Period}=2 \end{gathered}$

The equation of the midline is

$y_{ml}=\frac{y_{\max }+y_{\min }}{2}$

Since the maximum is at the greatest value of cos, which is 1, then

$\begin{gathered} y_{\max }=4(1)+1 \\ y_{\max }=5 \end{gathered}$

Since the minimum is at the smallest value of cos, which is -1, then

$\begin{gathered} y_{\min }=4(-1)+1 \\ y_{\min }=-4+1 \\ y_{\min }=-3 \end{gathered}$

Then substitute them in the equation of the midline

$\begin{gathered} y_{ml}=\frac{5+(-3)}{2} \\ y_{ml}=\frac{2}{2} \\ y_{ml}=1 \end{gathered}$

The answers are:

Period = 2

Equation of the midline is y = 1

Maximum = 5

Minimum = -3

3 0

1 year ago

If a thermometer indicates 40 degrees Celsius, what's the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit? A. 22°F B. 72°F C. 54°F D. 104°F

Elena L [17]

$F = 9/5C + 32$

F = 9/5(40) + 32
F = 72 + 32
F = 105

40°C is ~105°F, and the closest would be D.

5 0

4 years ago